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QUESTION 1
Examine the structure of the EMPLOYEES table:
EMPLOYEE_ID NUMBER Primary Key
FIRST_NAME VARCHAR2(25)
LAST_NAME VARCHAR2(25)
Which three statements insert a row into the table? (Choose three.)

A.    INSERT INTO employees
VALUES ( NULL, ‘John’, ‘Smith’);
B.    INSERT INTO employees( first_name, last_name)
VALUES( ‘John’, ‘Smith’);
C.    INSERT INTO employees
VALUES ( ‘1000’, ‘John’, NULL);
D.    INSERT INTO employees (first_name, last_name, employee_id) VALUES ( 1000, ‘John’, ‘Smith’);
E.    INSERT INTO employees (employee_id)
VALUES (1000);
F.    INSERT INTO employees (employee_id, first_name, last_name) VALUES ( 1000, ‘John’, ‘ ‘);

Answer: CEF

QUESTION 2
Evaluate the SQL statement:
SELECT ROUND(45.953, -1), TRUNC(45.936, 2)
FROM dual;
Which values are displayed?

A.    46 and 45
B.    46 and 45.93
C.    50 and 45.93
D.    50 and 45.9
E.    45 and 45.93
F.    45.95 and 45.93

Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which are DML statements? (Choose all that apply.)

A.    COMMIT
B.    MERGE
C.    UPDATE
D.    DELETE
E.    CREATE
F.    DROP…

Answer: BCD
QUESTION 4
Evaluate the set of SQL statements:
CREATE TABLE dept
(deptno NUMBER(2),
dname VARCHAR2(14),
loc VARCHAR2(13));
ROLLBACK;
DESCRIBE DEPT
What is true about the set?

A.    The DESCRIBE DEPT statement displays the structure of the DEPT table.
B.    The ROLLBACK statement frees the storage space occupied by the DEPT table.
C.    The DESCRIBE DEPT statement returns an error ORA-04043: object DEPT does not exist.
D.    The DESCRIBE DEPT statement displays the structure of the DEPT table only if there is a COMMIT statement introduced before the ROLLBACK statement.

Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Evaluate this SQL statement:
SELECT ename, sal, 12*sal+100
FROM emp;
The SAL column stores the monthly salary of the employee.
Which change must be made to the above syntax to calculate the annual compensation as "monthly salary plus a monthly bonus of $100, multiplied by 12"?

A.    No change is required to achieve the desired results.
B.    SELECT ename, sal, 12*(sal+100)
FROM emp;
C.    SELECT ename, sal, (12*sal)+100
FROM emp;
D.    SELECT ename, sal+100,*12
FROM emp;

Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Examine the SQL statement that creates ORDERS table:
CREATE TABLE orders
(SER_NO NUMBER UNIQUE,
ORDER_ID NUMBER,
ORDER_DATE DATE NOT NULL,
STATUS VARCHAR2(10)
CHECK (status IN (‘CREDIT’, ‘CASH’)),
PROD_ID NUMBER
REFERENCES PRODUCTS(PRODUCT_ID),
ORD_TOTAL NUMBER,
PRIMARY KEY (order_id, order_date));
For which columns would an index be automatically created when you execute the above SQL statement? (Choose two.)

A.    SER_NO
B.    ORDER_ID
C.    STATUS
D.    PROD_ID
E.    ORD_TOTAL
F.    composite index on ORDER_ID and ORDER_DATE

Answer: AF

QUESTION 7
Examine the structure of the EMP_DEPT_VU view:
Column Name Type Remarks
EMPLOYEE_ID NUMBER From the EMPLOYEES table
EMP_NAME VARCHAR2(30) From the EMPLOYEES table
JOB_ID VARCHAR2(20) From the EMPLOYEES table
SALARY NUMBER From the EMPLOYEES table
DEPARTMENT_ID NUMBER From the DEPARTMENTS table
DEPT_NAME VARCHAR2(30) From the DEPARTMENTS table
Which SQL statement produces an error?

A.    SELECT *
FROM emp_dept_vu;
B.    SELECT department_id, SUM(salary)
FROM emp_dept_vu
GROUP BY department_id;
C.    SELECT department_id, job_id, AVG(salary)
FROM emp_dept_vu
GROUP BY department_id, job_id;
D.    SELECT job_id, SUM(salary)
FROM emp_dept_vu
WHERE department_id IN (10,20)
GROUP BY job_id
HAVING SUM(salary) > 20000;
E.    None of the statements produce an error; all are valid.

Answer: E

QUESTION 8
Evaluate this SQL statement:
SELECT e.EMPLOYEE_ID,e.LAST_NAME,e.DEPARTMENT_ID, d.DEPARTMENT_NAME
FROM EMPLOYEES e, DEPARTMENTS d
WHERE e.DEPARTMENT_ID = d.DEPARTMENT_ID;
In the statement, which capabilities of a SELECT statement are performed?
A.    selection, projection, join
B.    difference, projection, join
C.    selection, intersection, join
D.    intersection, projection, join
E.    difference, projection, product

Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Click the Exhibit button and examine the data from the EMP table. The COMMISSION column shows the monthly commission earned by the employee. Which three tasks would require subqueries or joins in order to be performed in a single step? (Choose three.)
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A.    deleting the records of employees who do not earn commission
B.    increasing the commission of employee 3 by the average commission earned in department 20
C.    finding the number of employees who do NOT earn commission and are working for department 20
D.    inserting into the table a new employee 10 who works for department 20 and earns a commission that is equal to the commission earned by employee 3
E.    creating a table called COMMISSION that has the same structure and data as the columns EMP_ID and COMMISSION of the EMP table
F.    decreasing the commission by 150 for the employees who are working in department 30 and earning a commission of more than 800

Answer: BDE

QUESTION 10
You need to modify the STUDENTS table to add a primary key on the STUDENT_ID column. The table is currently empty. Which statement accomplishes this task?

A.    ALTER TABLE students
ADD PRIMARY KEY student_id;
B.    ALTER TABLE students
ADD CONSTRAINT PRIMARY KEY (student_id);
C.    ALTER TABLE students
ADD CONSTRAINT stud_id_pk PRIMARY KEY student_id;
D.    ALTER TABLE students
ADD CONSTRAINT stud_id_pk PRIMARY KEY (student_id); E.ALTER TABLE students
MODIFY CONSTRAINT stud_id_pk PRIMARY KEY (student_id);

Answer: D
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QUESTION 1
An administrator is deploying vSphere 5.5. The administrator creates a vSphere Distributed
Switch, then uses Auto Deploy to deploy several ESXi hosts. After the hosts are deployed, the administrator notices that LACP packets are not being sent between them.
Which condition would cause this issue to occur?

A.    The LACP support settings do not exist in the Host Profile.
B.    The LACP installation bundle is not included in the Image Profile.
C.    The LACP setting is not enabled on vCenter Server.
D.    LACP has not been configured on the Auto Deploy server.

Answer: A

QUESTION 2
An administrator has configured a vSphere 5.5 test environment to evaluate the Virtual SAN feature using Automatic Mode Disk Groups. The administrator needs to disable the Virtual SAN cluster while preserving the virtual machines running on that cluster.
The administrator has already installed a vSphere 5.5 Client on a Windows 7 desktop and also has access to the vSphere 5.5 Web Client.
What should the administrator do to disable the Virtual SAN?

A.    Use Storage vMotion to migrate the virtual machines to another datastore then use the vSphere 5.5
Client to disable the Virtual SAN.
B.    Use Storage vMotion to migrate the virtual machines to another datastore then use the vSphere 5.5
Web Client to disable the Virtual SAN.
C.    Use the vSphere 5.5 Client to disable the Virtual SAN, which will automatically migrate the virtual
machines via the Storage DRS feature.
D.    Use the vSphere 5.5 Web Client to disable the Virtual SAN, which will automatically migrate the virtual
machines via the Storage DRS feature.

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which VLAN configuration requires switch connectivity defined as an access port?

A.    Private VLAN
B.    External Switch Tagging
C.    Virtual Guest Tagging
D.    Virtual Switch Tagging

Answer: B

QUESTION 4
An administrator is planning a vSphere infrastructure with the following specific networking requirements:
– The ability to shape inbound (RX) traffic
– Support for Private VLANs (PVLANs)
– Support for LLDP (Link Layer Discovery Protocol)
What is the minimum vSphere Edition that will support these requirements?

A.    vSphere Essentials Plus
B.    vSphere Standard
C.    vSphere Enterprise
D.    vSphere Enterprise Plus

Answer: D

QUESTION 5
An administrator is using vSphere Replication to replicate a number of virtual machines to a recovery site. The administrator plans on enabling Storage DRS on the production site, which is running vSphere 5.5. What changes must be made in order to support this configuration?

A.    Storage DRS can be added to the existing configuration without any configuration changes
B.    Disable Storage DRS on the virtual machines utilizing vSphere Replication
C.    Change the Recovery Point Objective for the replicated virtual machines to support the additional
synchronization time
D.    Storage DRS cannot be used in conjunction with vSphere Replication

Answer: A

QUESTION 6
A number of virtual machines in a vSphere 5.5 DRS cluster are connected to the same virtual switch port group. After several of these VMs are migrated to another host, an administrator notices that they have lost network connectivity. The Events tab in vCenter Server shows this error message:
Failed to initialize ethernet0.
The vmkernel log file on the host running the affected VMs contains this message:
Can’t connect device:’port group name’: Out of resources.
Which caused this issue?

A.    Network I/O Control was enabled.
B.    The DRS cluster containing the VMs was set to Fully Automated with the Migration Threshold set
to Conservative.
C.    There were insufficient uplinks configured on the virtual switches.
D.    The virtual switch port allocation was changed from the default setting.

Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which Single Sign-On deployment mode should an administrator use for two 5.x vCenter Servers configured with linked mode?

A.    Basic Single Sign-On with vCenter Server Heartbeat
B.    Multisite Single Sign-On
C.    Basic Single Sign-On
D.    Single Sign-On with Linked Mode

Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Immediately after installing an ESXi host, an administrator needs to examine the following log files:
/var/log/hostd.log
/var/log/vmkernel.log
/var/log/vpxa.log
Which two connections would allow an administrator to examine these files? (Choose two.)

A.    Connecting to the Direct Console User Interface
B.    Attaching a vSphere Client directly to the ESXi host
C.    Attaching the vSphere Web Client directly to the ESXi host
D.    Attaching the vSphere Client to the vCenter Server managing the ESXi host

Answer: AB

QUESTION 9
An administrator is upgrading a vSphere Distributed Switch. The existing switch is version 5.0 and the administrator wants to upgrade to the latest version possible. The environment contains several ESXi 5.1 hosts.
Which two options are available to ensure that the upgraded switch will be compatible with these hosts? (Choose two.)

A.    Upgrade the vSphere Distributed Switch to 5.5
B.    Upgrade the ESXi 5.1 hosts to version 5.5, then upgrade the vSphere Distributed Switch to 5.5
C.    Upgrade the vSphere Distributed Switch to 5.1
D.    Upgrade the ESXi host switches to 5.5, then upgrade the vSphere Distributed Switch to 5.5

Answer: BC

QUESTION 10
To avoid unnecessary planned downtime, what is the minimum version of VMware Tools that, if installed, will decrease the need for virtual machine reboots following VMware Tools upgrades?

A.    5.5
B.    5.1
C.    5.0
D.    4.1

Answer: B

QUESTION 11
A vSphere administrator upgrades a version 5.1.0 vSphere Distributed Switch to version 5.5.0. Another vSphere administrator, unaware of this change, tries to add an ESXi version 5.1.0 host to the switch and fails.
What is causing this addition of the ESXi host to fail?

A.    The upgraded switch supports version 5.5 ESXi hosts only.
B.    The upgraded switch must be set up for backwards compatibility.
C.    The switch failed to upgrade properly.
D.    A version 5.5 ESXi host must be added to the switch before the 5.1 host.

Answer: A

QUESTION 12
The vSphere administrator needs to migrate a virtual machine from one ESXi 5.5 host to another ESXi 5.5 host. The virtual machine has a virtual disk that is stored in local storage.
Assuming only the vSphere Essentials licensing is in place, which technique should the administrator use to accomplish the migration?

A.    vMotion migration
B.    Cold migration
C.    Enhanced vMotion migration
D.    Storage vMotion migration

Answer: B

QUESTION 13
A host in a 4-node HA\DRS cluster has failed. HA initiates restart tasks for the virtual machines on the remaining hosts in the cluster but half of them fail to restart.
What is the likely reason virtual machines fail to restart?

A.    HA admission control is blocking the restart of the virtual machines due to insufficient resources to
support the configured failover level of the cluster.
B.    The vMotion network has failed on the remaining hosts preventing the virtual machines from migrating.
C.    Storage vMotion has failed on the datastore containing the virtual machines preventing them from migrating.
D.    The failed host was the Master host in the cluster and no other hosts are able to perform the necessary
HA function to restart the virtual machines.

Answer: A
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QUESTION 1
The VMware vCenter Server Appliance has been deployed using default settings.
What user name and password are used to log in to the administration interface to configure the appliance?

A.    The initial user name and password must be supplied on the first login attempt.
B.    The initial user name and password must be supplied during deployment.
C.    The initial user name is root and the password is blank.
D.    The initial user name is root and the password is vmware.

Answer: D

QUESTION 2
How can you verify vStorage APIs for Array Integration (VAAI) is enabled?

A.    "VAAI" listed on the Hard Disk properties page for any VMDK stored on a compliant array
B.    "Hardware Acceleration" listed on the Hard Disk properties page for any VMDK stored on a compliant array
C.    "VAAI" column for any datastore created on a compliant array
D.    "Hardware Acceleration" column for any datastore created on a compliant array

Answer: C

QUESTION 3
What are two consequences of deleting an VMFS datastore from an ESXi host? (Choose two.)

A.    The datastore is unaccessible from all connected ESX/ESXi hosts.
B.    The datastore and all virtual machines are removed from the storage device.
C.    The datastore and all virtual machines remain on the storage device.
D.    The datastore is only removed from that specific ESX/ESXi host.

Answer: AB

QUESTION 4
How is the page file for a Windows guest operating system or the swap partition for a Linux guest operating system created?

A.    By the ESXi host
B.    By the guest operating system
C.    By the vCenter server
D.    By the vCenter cluster

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
When deploying an OVF template, what file format will the resulting virtual disk be?

A.    OVF
B.    VMDK
C.    VMX
D.    VSWP

Answer: B

QUESTION 6
An administrator decides to use Data Recovery to back up some key virtual machines. What is the process to install Data Recovery?

A.    Download the vmdk and vmx files from VMware.com and copy to a datastore. Right-click the vmx file
and select Add to Inventory.
B.    Download the .exe from VMware.com and run from the vSphere Client machine.
C.    Use the vCenter Installer from the original vCenter media and select "vSphere Data Recovery".
D.    Download OVF from VMware.com onto the vSphere Client machine and use Deploy OVF Template.

Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which are three use cases for vSphere Fault Tolerance? (Choose three.)

A.    Provide guaranteed reliability for a legacy Windows NT virtual machine
B.    Provide efficient scheduled reliability for a payroll virtual machine
C.    Guarantee up-time for a virtual machine – VMFILE01 with a 4GB RDM
D.    Ensure up-time for a Linux virtual machine without making any changes to the OS
E.    Provide guaranteed reliability for a development virtual machine with scheduled snapshots

Answer: ABD

QUESTION 8
Which two statements are true about VLANs and portgroups defined on a vSphere Standard Switch? (Choose two.)

A.    A VLAN can be accessed by the entire virtual switch or individual portgroups.
B.    VLANs can be configured only on individual portgroups.
C.    Multiple portgroups are restricted from accessing the same VLAN.
D.    Multiple VLANs can be accessed by virtual machines connected to one portgroup.

Answer: AD

QUESTION 9
What is the default VFAT scratch partition size for ESXi 5.x?

A.    4GB
B.    600MB
C.    544MB
D.    None

Answer: A

QUESTION 10
The VMware vCenter Server Appliance offers many features of the Windows application version. Which of the following features is only available on the Windows application version of vCenter?

A.    Host Profiles
B.    Template and clone customization
C.    Active Directory authentication
D.    Linked Mode

Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Which condition produces a warning message but will allow a VMotion migration to proceed?

A.    A virtual machine has an active connection to the ESXi host’s CD-ROM drive
B.    A virtual machine has a CPU affinity set to run on a specific CPU.
C.    A virtual machine is in an MSCS Cluster relationship with another virtual machine
D.    A virtual machine is configured to use an internal virtual switch but is not connected to the switch

Answer: D

QUESTION 12
An administrator finds that an ESXi host cannot be managed by vCenter Server. Which three logs can be reviewed using the DCUI? (Choose three.)

A.    The ESXi shell logs
B.    The HA agent logs
C.    The management agent log
D.    The vmkernel log
E.    The VMware ESXi Observation log

Answer: CDE

QUESTION 13
Which two actions have no effect on the amount of physical memory resources used for virtualization overhead? (Choose two.)

A.    Installing a 64-bit versus 32-bit operating system.
B.    Increasing the amount of RAM in the virtual machine.
C.    Increasing the number of virtual CPUs in the virtual machine.
D.    Increasing the memory shares for the virtual machine.

Answer: AD

QUESTION 14
An administrator determines that a virtual machine configured for the Development port group lost network connectivity when it was migrated with vMotion from one ESXi 5.x host to another. The administrator notices that machines configured for the Production port group are not experiencing the issue. The hosts have port groups with the following network configuration:
Host A:
1. Production (VLAN 100)
2. Development
Host B:
1. Production (VLAN 100)
2. Development (VLAN 200)
Which two conditions would explain the loss of network connectivity for the virtual machine? (Choose two.)

A.    The configured VLAN for Production on Host A is incorrect.
B.    The configured VLAN for Development on Host B is incorrect.
C.    An improper native VLAN is configured on the uplinks to Host A.
D.    An improper native VLAN is configured on the uplinks to Host B.

Answer: BC

QUESTION 15
An administrator is setting up vMotion in a vSphere environment. A migration is run to test the configuration, but fails. On which vSphere component does vMotion need to be enabled?

A.    vCenter Server
B.    Virtual Machine port group
C.    VMkernel port group
D.    vNetwork Standard Switch

Answer: C
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QUESTION 1
Which tool helps to create Cloud services?

A.    Service planning tool
B.    Service creation tool
C.    Service management tool
D.    Service monitoring tool

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which technique enables making physical resources appear as logical resources?

A.    Virtualization
B.    Utility computing
C.    Self provisioning
D.    Grid computing

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which is an essential characteristic of the Cloud?

A.    Resource planning
B.    Resource utilization
C.    Resource pooling
D.    Resource reservation

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which is a key step in building a Cloud Infrastructure?

A.    Automate resource classification
B.    Automate service provisioning
C.    Centralize services and resources
D.    Customize services and resources

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
What is the benefit of a RAID?

A.    Improves storage systems performance
B.    Prevents disk failure in a RAID Set
C.    Ensures data integrity in a RAID set
D.    Simplifies distribution of parity across mirrored disks

Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which statement is true about FC SAN?

A.    Enables object level access to data
B.    Supports a maximum of 256 nodes
C.    Provides higher scalability as compared to DAS
D.    Has limited ability to share resources

Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which key requirement of a data center refers to the ability of IT to support new business initiatives dynamically?

A.    Capacity
B.    Manageability
C.    Availability
D.    Flexibility

Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which are the key parameters that determine the performance and availability of a RAID set?

A.    Number of drives in a RAID set and the capacity of each drive
B.    Number of RAID controllers and type of RAID implementation
C.    Number of drives is a RAID set and type of RAID implementation
D.    Number of drives in a RAID set and RAID level

Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which key requirement of a data center is violated when an authorized storage administrator is not able to remotely login to a server in the data center?

A.    Security
B.    Flexibility
C.    Scalability
D.    Availability

Answer: D

QUESTION 10
What is stored in a virtual machine log file?

A.    Virtual machine BIOS information
B.    Information of virtual machine’s activities
C.    Information of virtual machine’s configuration
D.    Virtal machine’s RAM contents

Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which parameter determines the maximum amount of resource that a virtual machine can consume?

A.    Limit
B.    Share
C.    Priority
D.    Reservation

Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which technology enables a physical CPU to appear as two or more logical CPUs?

A.    Ballooning
B.    Multi-core
C.    Hyper-threading
D.    Load balancing

Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Which Virtual Machine File System feature ensures that a virtual machine is not powered on by multiple compute systems at the same time?

A.    On-power lock
B.    On-compute lock
C.    On-disk lock
D.    On-VM lock

Answer: C

QUESTION 14
Which is the primary function of hypervisor

A.    Allows multiple file systems to run concurrently on a virtual machine
B.    Allows multiple operating systems to run concurrently on a virtual machine
C.    Allows authorization to virtual machine resources to users
D.    Allows multiple operating systems to run concurrently on a physical machine

Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
Which cache management algorithm is based on the assumption that data will not be requested by the host when it has not been accessed for a while?

A.    LRU
B.    HWM
C.    LWM
D.    MRU

Answer: A

QUESTION 2
What does the area ID of the FC address identify?

A.    Group of ports within a switch
B.    An individual port within a fabric
C.    Location of the name server within the fabric
D.    Unique number provided to each switch in the fabric

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
An organization performs copy on first access (CoFA) replication to create a local replica of application data. To perform a successful restore, what should be considered?

A.    Source devices must be healthy
B.    Save location size must be larger than the size of all source devices
C.    Save location size must be equal to the size of all source devices
D.    All changes to the source and replica must be discarded before the restore starts

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which host component eliminates the need to deploy separate adapters for FC and Ethernet communications?

A.    Converged network adapter
B.    TCP Offload Engine NIC
C.    FCIP bridging adapter
D.    iSCSI host bus adapter

Answer: A

QUESTION 5
What is a function of unified management software in cloud computing?

A.    Defining cloud service attributes
B.    Consolidating infrastructure resources scattered across one or more data centers
C.    Metering based on usage of resources by the consumer
D.    Providing an interface to consumers to request cloud services

Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which EMC product provides the capability to recover data up to any point-in-time?

A.    RecoverPoint
B.    NetWorker
C.    Avamar
D.    Data Domain

Answer: A

QUESTION 7
What is needed to perform a non-disruptive migration of virtual machines (VMs) between hypervisors?

A.    Hypervisors must have access to the same storage volume
B.    Physical machines running hypervisors must have the same configuration
C.    Hypervisors must be running within the same physical machine
D.    Both hypervisors must have the same IP address

Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which iSCSI name requires an organization to own a registered domain name?

A.    IQN
B.    EUI
C.    WWNN
D.    WWPN

Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which data center requirement refers to applying mechanisms that ensure data is stored and retrieved as it was received?

A.    Integrity
B.    Availability
C.    Security
D.    Performance

Answer: A

QUESTION 10
What describes a landing zone in a disk drive?

A.    Area on which the read/write head rests
B.    Area where the read/write head lands to access data
C.    Area where the data is buffered before writing to platters
D.    Area where sector-specific information is stored on the disk

Answer: A
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QUESTION 1
Users must be able to connect remotely from their own mobile devices.
What should the architect consider to increase the security of the current authentication solution?

A.    Adding a second authentication factor
B.    Placing domain controllers in the DMZ for remote users
C.    Shortening the Active Directory password expiration period
D.    Populating the RDS user profile path in the Active Directory user accounts

Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which aspect of the new storage system’s performance requirements is critical to the success of the project and should be determined before any purchase takes place?

A.    Whether it supports automatic tiering
B.    The number of SSD drives it will hold
C.    Whether 8Gb/s Fibre Channel or 10Gb/s Ethernet technology provides more storage bandwidth
D.    The number of IOPS it must support to host the required amount of pooled and dedicated virtual desktops

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
The architect needs to evaluate the options for replicating user profiles across all sites.
Which two pieces of information should the architect collect to analyze the options? (Choose two.)

A.    WAN traffic
B.    License requirements
C.    Storage infrastructure
D.    Database configuration

Answer: BD

QUESTION 4
What are two potential risks in the existing environment that the architect must address in the proposed virtual solution? (Choose two.)

A.    Local profiles are used and administrators manually delete them when necessary.
B.    Installation of PositivelyPeople is performed manually based on a thoroughly documented process.
C.    No logon scripts are enabled for users because the company abandoned logon scripts last year in favor
of GPOs.
D.    Users log on to the company environment based on Active Directory credentials, but the PositivelyFinance
application requires secondary credentials.

Answer: AB

QUESTION 5
Which solution meets the criteria for reducing the general IT costs for the Research and Training user group to access their applications?

A.    VM Hosted applications
B.    Streamed server OS machines
C.    Dedicated desktop OS machines
D.    Pooled desktop OS machine with Personal vDisk

Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Scenario: Users from a remote research lab have very limited WAN bandwidth to their nearest datacenter. The users need to print over the WAN.
What should an architect recommend to optimize printer bandwidth?

A.    Optimize WAN traffic through CloudBridge.
B.    Increase the WAN bandwidth through a WAN link upgrade.
C.    Restrict overall session bandwidth through a HDX bandwidth policy.
D.    Restrict printer redirection bandwidth through a HDX bandwidth policy.

Answer: A

QUESTION 7
The architect recommended pooled desktop OS machines with Personal vDisks for the Nurses, Imaging, and Radiology user group. How should an engineer implement antivirus software on these desktop OS machines?

A.    Install the antivirus software into the base image.
B.    Deploy the antivirus package as an App-V application.
C.    Deploy the antivirus software through a Group Policy startup script.
D.    Install the antivirus software in the master Personal vDisk as a user-installed application.

Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which endpoint devices must be replaced to support the Streamed VHD method of desktop delivery?

A.    Windows 7
B.    Windows XP
C.    Linux thin clients
D.    PCs running Internet Explorer 7

Answer: C

QUESTION 9
The company plans to reduce their storage requirement by using thin provisioning with XenServer hosts. Which storage option should the architect verify for capability in the current environment?

A.    NFS
B.    CIFS
C.    iSCSI
D.    Fibre Channel

Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which consideration is unnecessary for the PositivelyPeople application in the new environment?

A.    File security
B.    Secure remote access
C.    Access to legacy mainframe
D.    Support for secured print jobs

Answer: C
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QUESTION 1
A Citrix Engineer needs to enable high availability on the XenServer host.
What are two requirements for the environment? (Choose two.)

A.    Workload Balancing has to be disabled.
B.    A static IP address must be set on the management interface.
C.    XenServer hosts need to be part of a XenServer resource pool.
D.    A dedicated management interface for high availability must be created.
E.    A shared storage repository needs to be available for heartbeat and metadata.

Answer: CE

QUESTION 2
When using diskless VM with Provisioning Services, which two steps does a Citrix Engineer need to perform for Active Directory Domain Management? (Choose two.)

A.    Enable Target Device Management.
B.    Enable Automatic Device Management.
C.    Enable Automatic Password Management.
D.    Enable Machine Account Password Management.

Answer: CD

QUESTION 3
Scenario: Specialists at CCH are reporting that X-ray images are NOT displaying as expected from a quality standpoint. HDX policies are configured with default values.
What should a Citrix Engineer do to make sure X-ray images are displayed with the best possible quality?

A.    Set the lossy compression level to None.
B.    Set the Flash latency threshold to 50 ms.
C.    Set the progressive display level to High.
D.    Set the extra color compression threshold to 1024 Kbps.

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
CCH requires that every Change at Site configuration is documented for auditing and needs to prevent undocumented changes to the Site configuration.
Which two actions should a Citrix Engineer perform to meet these requirements? (Choose two.)

A.    Ensure that Configuration logging is enabled.
B.    Configure logging for the Site database on the SQL Server.
C.    Enable Windows Security Settings – Audit Policy using Group Policy.
D.    Disable the ‘Allow changes when the database is disconnected’ option on the Configuration database.

Answer: AD

QUESTION 5
A Citrix Engineer creates a new Delivery Controller and needs to join it to an existing Site to increase Site redundancy. Which database user role permissions does the engineer need?

A.    db_owner and db_datawriter permissions
B.    db_accessadmin and dbcreator permissions
C.    db_accessadmin and db_ddladmin permissions
D.    db_securityadmin and dbm_monitor permissions

Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Scenario: A Citrix Engineer must use Provisioning Services to provision 50 desktop OS machines. The engineer has installed and configured two Provisioning Services servers to guarantee high availability and now needs to configure the write cache location of the virtual desktops so that failover is possible in case one of the Provisioning Services servers fails.
Which three write cache locations could the engineer choose? (Choose three.)

A.    In the RAM of the virtual desktop
B.    On a Citrix ShareFile storage zone
C.    On a persistent disk attached to the virtual desktop
D.    On the local disk of both Provisioning Services servers
E.    On a fileshare connected to both Provisioning Services servers

Answer: ACE

QUESTION 7
A Citrix Engineer needs to install a new Delivery Controller with database mirroring.
Which two editions of SQL Server support database mirroring? (Choose two.)

A.    SQL Server 2012 Express
B.    SQL Server 2005 SP3 Enterprise
C.    SQL Server 2012 SP1 Enterprise
D.    SQL Server 2008 R2 SP2 Standard

Answer: CD

QUESTION 8
The IT Help Desk Administrator at CCH needs to shadow a user session for application troubleshooting purposes. Which two permissions need to be set in the environment? (Choose two.)

A.    Read-Only Administrator
B.    Microsoft Group Policy settings for RDS
C.    Microsoft Group Policy settings for Remote Assistance
D.    Perform Remote Assistance on a machine role permission

Answer: CD

QUESTION 9
Scenario: A hosted application reverts to the default settings every time users log off. The application writes configuration data to C:\myapp\data\settings.ini file.
What should a Citrix Engineer create to ensure the user settings are saved?

A.    A custom Machine HDX policy
B.    A logon script renaming C:\myapp\data\
C.    A policy setting for File System Synchronization
D.    A scheduled task relocating C:\myapp\data\ directory

Answer: C

QUESTION 10
A Citrix Engineer needs to configure Citrix StoreFront load balancing on NetScaler and forward the Receiver system IP address.
What should the engineer type into the Client IP Header field on the service group Advanced tab to accomplish this task?

A.    Client-IP
B.    Source-IP
C.    User-agent
D.    X-forwarded-for

Answer: D

QUESTION 11
A Citrix Engineer at CCH needs to use Universal Print Server to simplify printer driver management in a XenDesktop environment.
Which policy should the engineer configure to implement Universal Print Server?

A.    Client printer redirection
B.    Auto-create all client printers
C.    Universal Print Server enable
D.    Use universal printing only if requested driver is unavailable

Answer: C

QUESTION 12
What must be true in order to implement offline profiles with Citrix Profile Management?

A.    Profile streaming must be disabled.
B.    The computer must be joined to a domain.
C.    Active write back must be enabled in the profile definition.
D.    Locally cached profiles must be deleted when users log off.

Answer: B

QUESTION 13
A Citrix Engineer needs to implement RADIUS as a secondary authentication method for remote access users connecting through NetScaler. Which two steps should the engineer take to ensure correct functionality? (Choose two.)

A.    Configure an Administrator Bind DN.
B.    Configure the sdconf.rec file on the NetScaler.
C.    Add a host entry on the RADIUS server for the NetScaler.
D.    Open the intranet firewall for the NSIP address to the RADIUS server.

Answer: CD

QUESTION 14
Users who are testing the hosted shared desktop at CCH report that logon time is unacceptably slow. Which three best practices should a Citrix Engineer implement to optimize the logon time for the hosted shared desktops? (Choose three.)

A.    Enable Profile Streaming.
B.    Enable Active Write Back.
C.    Store the UPM profiles on a highly available CIFS share.
D.    Replace logon scripts with GPO preferences where possible.
E.    Redirect common folders such as Documents, Music, and Pictures.

Answer: ADE

QUESTION 15
Scenario: A Citrix Engineer needs to deploy static desktops with Personal vDisk for the head office staff. The engineer implements a catalog named Windows8-PvD with Personal vDisk enabled and uses Citrix Roaming Profile Management to save user profile settings.
The engineer needs to configure Personal vDisk to NOT store user profile settings. Additionally, Personal vDisk must be configured so that 80% is allocated for applications and 20% is allocated for user profile data.
Which two steps must the engineer take to implement this solution? (Choose two.)

A.    Configure the registry key PercentOfPvDForApps on the master image with a value of 80.
B.    Configure the registry key EnableUserProfileRedirection on the master image with a value of 0.
C.    Run "Set-BrokerDesktopGroup "Windows8-PvD" -PeakBufferSizePercent 80" on the Delivery Controller.
D.    Configure the registry key EnableDynamicResizeOfAppContainer on the master image with a value of 1.
E.    Run "Set-BrokerDesktopGroup "Windows8-PvD" -OffPeakBufferSizePercent 20" on the Delivery Controller.

Answer: AB

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QUESTION 1
Based on the information shown in the attached exhibit, does the XenServer host have sufficient CPU resources available?
 clip_image002[5]
Click the Exhibit button to view a screenshot of the Performance Graphs for the XenServer host.

A.    The CPU resources are sufficient, and NO upgrade is required.
B.    The CPU resources are sufficient, but some virtual machines have occasional peaks.
C.    The CPU resources are insufficient; upgrading or running fewer virtual machines is recommended.
D.    The CPU resources are sufficient for now, but running additional virtual machines is NOT recommended.

Answer: A

QUESTION 2
A Citrix Administrator turned on Provisioning Services auditing. Changes made in the __________, __________ and __________ will be recorded. (Choose the three correct locations to complete the sentence.)

A.    MCLI
B.    SOAP Server
C.    Provisioning Services Console
D.    Provisioning Services BOOTPTAB Editor
E.     Provisioning Services Boot Device Manager

Answer: ABC

QUESTION 3
Which PowerShell commandlet should a Citrix Administrator use to enable event logging for the authentication service, stores and Receiver for Web?

A.    Set-DSTraceLevel -All -TraceLevel Off
B.    Set-DSTraceLevel -All -TraceLevel Info
C.    Set-DSTraceLevel -All -TraceLevel Verbose
D.    Set-DSTraceLevel -All -TraceLevel Warning

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
A Citrix Administrator finds that Profile Management is NOT writing .INI files back to the User Profile Store. Which log entry type should the administrator enable in Profile Management logging to see which items are being written to the User Profile Store?

A.    File system actions
B.    Common information
C.    File system notifications
D.    Personalized user information

Answer: A

QUESTION 5
After configuring Active Directory authentication on a NetScaler VPX appliance, users report that they are unable to authenticate to NetScaler. Which two steps must a Citrix Administrator complete to troubleshoot this issue? (Choose two.)

A.    Validate that port 389 is open to the domain controller.
B.    Enable AAA authentication logging to monitor user authentication attempts.
C.    Run the LDAP browser from the Delivery Controller to validate LDAP connectivity.
D.    Configure a session policy on the NetScaler virtual server to use the LDAP profile.

Answer: AB

QUESTION 6
A Citrix Administrator needs to shadow a user session from Citrix Director but is unable to connect to the user’s Windows 7 virtual desktop. Which two ports may be blocked by a firewall? (Choose two.)

A.    80
B.    135
C.    443
D.    1494
E.     3389

Answer: B

QUESTION 7
A Citrix Administrator identifies that Citrix Studio CANNOT communicate with the Delivery Controller database. Which port may be blocked, preventing Citrix Studio from being able to connect to the database?

A.    443
B.    1433
C.    1494
D.    27000

Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which three 60-minute historical trends can a Citrix Administrator view when using Citrix Director? (Choose three.)

A.    CPU usage
B.    Machine failures
C.    License checkouts
D.    Connection failures
E.     Concurrent sessions
F.     Memory consumption

Answer: BD

QUESTION 9
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator replaces the production StoreFront server with a new StoreFront server. Users access their resources from StoreFront through NetScaler. Which NetScaler policy must the administrator modify in order to allow users to continue to access resources securely from external locations?

A.    Traffic
B.    Session
C.    Authorization
D.    Authentication

Answer: B

QUESTION 10
The Sales team requests that a Citrix Administrator enhance the user experience on tablet devices. Which policy setting should the administrator enable to meet the requirements of the Sales team?

A.    Multimedia Conferencing
B.    Flash Content Redirection
C.    Windows Media Redirection
D.    Launch touch-optimized desktop

Answer: D

QUESTION 11
A Citrix Administrator needs to ensure that individual support teams are only able to control the delivery groups for their units. Which feature should the administrator configure to ensure that the appropriate teams have administrator access to the desktops for their particular unit?

A.    Scopes
B.    Exclusion filters
C.    User assignment
D.    SmartAccess settings

Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which two actions should a Citrix Administrator take prior to deleting desktop OS machines from a machine catalog? (Choose two.)

A.    Turn off the desktop OS machines.
B.    Place the desktop OS machines in maintenance mode.
C.    Remove the desktop OS machines from the hypervisor.
D.    Delete the Active Directory account for the desktop OS machines.
E.     Enable maintenance mode on the hypervisor hosting the desktop OS machines.

Answer: AB

QUESTION 13
Which two methods could a Citrix Administrator use to ensure that users are able to launch multiple virtual desktop sessions? (Choose two.)

A.    Change the ‘Desktops per user’ setting in the delivery groups settings.
B.    Give the user multiple devices so that they can have a session open on each.
C.    Create two host connections from the Delivery Controller to different hypervisors.
D.    Create two delivery groups from the same catalog and assign the users to both delivery groups.

Answer: AD

QUESTION 14
A Citrix Administrator publishes an application but receives reports that the application is NOT visible in Receiver through StoreFront. Why is the application NOT visible to users?

A.    The application is disabled.
B.    The path to the executable is incorrect.
C.    There are some user groups NOT assigned to the application.
D.    There are NO available server OS machines in the machine catalog.

Answer: C
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QUESTION 1
New Simulation: Crimp out a T568B.
Answer:
White/Orange, Orange, White/Green, Blue, White/Blue, Green, White/Brown, Brown.
Explanation:
 clip_image001
QUESTION 2
A firewall that detects and prevents attacks from outside the network based on learned data patterns can BEST be described as which of the following?

A.    Signature based IDS
B.    Behavior based IPS
C.    Host based IPS
D.    Network based IDS

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which of the following technologies prevents network collisions to maximize safe delivery of network data?

A.    CSMA/CA
B.    DWDM
C.    RADIUS
D.    SONET

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which of the following are authentication methods that can use AAA authentication? (Select TWO).

A.    Kerberos
B.    PKI
C.    TKIP/AES
D.    MS-CHAP
E.    RADIUS
F.    TACACS+

Answer: EF

QUESTION 5
Drag and Drop Question
Drag and drop the fiber cable connection types to the appropriate image.
 clip_image002[1]
Answer:
 clip_image002[3]
QUESTION 6
A company is connected to an ISP, but owns the premise router with an internal CSU/DSU. Which of the following is considered the demarc?

A.    Premise router
B.    ISP router
C.    Smart jack
D.    CSU/DSU

Answer: C

QUESTION 7
An IP camera has a failed PoE NIC. This is the third time in months that a PoE NIC has failed on
this device. The technician suspects a possible power issue. Which of the following should be used to test the theory?

A.    Toner probe
B.    Loopback plug
C.    Protocol analyzer
D.    Multimeter

Answer: D

QUESTION 8
A technician is troubleshooting a network issue and needs to view network traffic on a switch in real-time. Which of the following would allow the technician to view network traffic on a switch?

A.    ISAKMP
B.    Port forwarding
C.    Port security
D.    Port mirroring

Answer: D

QUESTION 9
A technician finds that the network card is no longer functioning. At which of the following OSI layers is the problem occurring?

A.    Layer 1
B.    Layer 3
C.    Layer 5
D.    Layer 7

Answer: A

QUESTION 10
The address 6FFE:FFFF:0000:2F3B:04AC:00FF:FEBE:5C4A is an example of which of the following?

A.    APIPA
B.    MAC
C.    IPv4
D.    IPv6

Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Which of the following properties of DHCP would a technician use to ensure an IP address is not leased out from the active scope?

A.    Reservations
B.    Lease times
C.    Removing IPs from the active leases
D.    Configuring the DNS options

Answer: A
Explanation:
Reservationsare permanent lease assignments that are used to ensure that a specified client on a subnet can always use the same IP address. You can use DHCP reservations for hosts that require a consistent IP address, but do not need to be statically configured.

QUESTION 12
A network technician needs to configure a port on a switch to provide connectivity and electrical support to a WAP being installed in a warehouse. Which of the following features needs to be configured on the switch?

A.    STP
B.    PoE
C.    VTP trunking
D.    Port forwarding

Answer: B
Explanation:
Power over Ethernet or PoE describes any of several standardized or ad-hoc systems which pass electrical power along with data on Ethernet cabling. This allows a single cable to provide both data connection and electrical power to devices such as wireless access points or IP cameras.

QUESTION 13
Which of the following reasons would MOST likely be used to implement QoS and traffic shaping solutions?

A.    Redundancy
B.    Fault tolerance
C.    Unified communications
D.    Uptime requirements

Answer: C
Explanation:
In unified communication video,voice,data have only one end gateway so to give priority to avoid delay in voice and video we use Qos.

QUESTION 14
Which of the following uses SSL encryption?

A.    SMTP
B.    FTP
C.    HTTPS
D.    SNMP

Answer: C
Explanation:
HTTPSis the result of simply layering the Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) on top of the SSL/TLS protocol, thus adding the security capabilities of SSL/TLS to standard HTTP communications.

QUESTION 15
A network administrator wants to balance the amount of data between two networking cards. Which of the following can be used for two or more networking cards?

A.    NIC bonding
B.    Proxy server
C.    Firewall ACLs
D.    VLANs

Answer: A
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QUESTION 1
An administrator has a network subnet dedicated to a group of users. Due to concerns regarding data and network security, the administrator desires to provide network access for this group only. Which of the following would BEST address this desire?

A.    Install a proxy server between the users’ computers and the switch to filter inbound network traffic.
B.    Block commonly used ports and forward them to higher and unused port numbers.
C.    Configure the switch to allow only traffic from computers based upon their physical address.
D.    Install host-based intrusion detection software to monitor incoming DHCP Discover requests.

Answer: C

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2014 Latest Microsoft 70-687 Exam Dump Free Download!(161-170)

QUESTION 161
You have a computer that runs Windows 8.1. IPv6 is disabled on the computer.
The computer has the following IPv4 settings:
– IP address: 10.1.1.193
– Subnet mask: 255.255.0.0
– Default gateway: 10.1.1.194
– Preferred DNS server: 10.1.1.195
You need to ensure that the computer can only communicate with computers on the local subnet. What should you do?

A.    Delete the default gateway address.
B.    Delete the preferred DNS server IP address.
C.    Configure the subnet mask to use 255.255.255.0.
D.    Configure the subnet mask to use 255.255.255.192.

Answer: A

QUESTION 162
To establish a DirectAccess connection to the network, what is the first requirement?

A.    A certificate
B.    A VPN connection
C.    A static IPv4 address
D.    A static IPv6 address

Answer: D

QUESTION 163
You have a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 8.1.
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2008. Computer1 and Server1 have IPv4 and IPv6 installed. You need to identify whether you can connect to Server1 by using IPv6. What should you do?

A.    Run Ping Server1 -6.
B.    Run Ping Server1 -n 6.
C.    Run Net view \\Server1.
D.    Open \\server1 from the Run dialog box.

Answer: A

QUESTION 164
A company is setting up a new branch office. You deploy 10 new Windows 8.1 64-bit client computers in the branch office.
The computers cannot connect to the Internet. You run the ipconfig command on one computer. The following output depicts a portion of the results.
 
You need to ensure that the computers can connect to the Internet.
What should you do?

A.    Deploy a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server. Configure all computers to use DHCP.
B.    Deploy an Internet Information Services (IIS) server. Configure all computers to use IIS.
C.    Deploy a Domain Name System (DNS) server. Configure all computers to use DNS.
D.    Deploy a Windows Internet Name Service (WINS) server. Configure all computers to use WINS.

Answer: A

QUESTION 165
A company has an Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain. All client computers are joined to the domain and run Window 8.1. You set up a management computer named COMPUTER1.
You plan to administer COMPUTER1 by using Windows Remote Shell (WinRS) from your client computer.
You are unable to connect to COMPUTER1 by running the winrs command.
You need to ensure that you can manage only COMPUTER1 by using WinRS.
What should you do?

A.    Run the winrs netdom join command on all client computers.
B.    Run the winrs netdom join command only on COMPUTER1.
C.    Run the winrm quickconfig command on all client computers.
D.    Run the winrm quickconfig command only on COMPUTER1.
E.    Run the winrs /ad /u:administrator command on COMPUTER1.

Answer: D

QUESTION 166
You administer Windows 8.1 client computers in your company network.
A user reports that her Internet connection is slower than usual.
You need to identify the Process Identifiers (PIDs) of applications that are making connections to the Internet.
Which command should you run?

A.    netstat -an
B.    jpconfig /showclassid
C.    netstat -o
D.    netsh set audit-logging
E.    netsh show netdlls

Answer: C

QUESTION 167
You administer Windows 8.1 computers in your company network.
You need to configure remote computers to receive Windows Remote Shell commands.
Which cmdlet should you run on the remote computers?

A.    Enable-PSRemoting
B.    Set-PSSessionConfiguration
C.    New-PSSession
D.    Set-NetConnectionProfile

Answer: A
Explanation:
The Enable-PSRemoting cmdlet configures the computer to receive Windows PowerShell remote commands that are sent by using the WS-Management technology.

QUESTION 168
You administer Windows 8.1 Pro computers in your company network.
A user reports that her computer experiences frequent STOP errors.
You need to repair the Windows 8.1 installation. Your solution must ensure that the user retains her current documents and settings.
What should you do?

A.    Create a recovery drive.
B.    Reinstall Windows 8. Restore the user’s personal files from a backup.
C.    Run Reset your PC.
D.    Run Refresh your PC.

Answer: D

QUESTION 169
You administer a Windows 8.1 Pro client computer. You disable system protection, install custom drivers, and create a system image.
You test a new application and discover that the computer becomes unresponsive.
You need to return your computer to the state that existed prior to the installation of the application.
What should you do?

A.    Start the computer from a system recovery drive, and then perform System Restore.
B.    Start the computer from a system repair disk, and then perform System Image Recovery.
C.    Start the computer from the system repair disk, and then from the command prompt, run the
BCDEdit /copy command.
D.    Run Reset your PC.

Answer: B
Explanation:
If you can’t access Control Panel and you don’t have a Windows installation disc or a system repair disc, use this method to restore your computer:
Restart your computer using the computer’s power button.
Do one of the following:
On the Advanced Boot Options screen, use the arrow keys to highlight Repair your computer, and then press Enter.
Select a keyboard layout, and then click Next.
Select a user name, type the password, and then click OK. On the System Recovery Options menu, click System Image Recovery, and then follow the instructions.

QUESTION 170
A company has Windows 8.1 client computers. Users store data files in their user profile libraries.
You need to ensure that you can restore data files to any date while minimizing system overhead.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each answer presents part of the solution.
Choose two.)

A.    Enable Storage Spaces.
B.    Configure settings to save copies of files daily.
C.    Turn on File History.
D.    Configure Windows 7 File Recovery.

Answer: BC

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QUESTION 151
Your network consists of a single IPv4 subnet. The subnet contains 20 computers that run Windows 8.1. You add a new computer named Computer1 to the subnet. You discover that Computer1 has an IP address of 169.254.34.12. You cannot connect to other computers on the network. Other computers on the network can connect to each other. You need to ensure that you can connect to all computers on the network. What should you do?

A.    Turn off Windows Firewall.
B.    Run Ipconfig.exe /renew.
C.    Configure a static TCP/IP address.
D.    Run Netsh.exe interface ipv4 install.

Answer: C

QUESTION 152
You need to prevent a custom application from connecting to the Internet. What should you do?

A.    From Windows Firewall, add a program.
B.    From Windows Defender, modify the Allowed items list.
C.    From Windows Firewall with Advanced Security, create an inbound rule.
D.    From Windows Firewall with Advanced Security, create an outbound rule.

Answer: D

QUESTION 153
You have a computer that runs Windows XP and a USB drive that is protected by using BitLocker To Go. You need to ensure that you can copy files from the computer to the USB drive. The solution must retain the existing files on the USB drive. What should you do?

A.    From a computer that runs Windows 8.1, change the file system of the USB drive.
B.    From a computer that runs Windows 81., disable BitLocker To Go for the USB drive.
C.    Log on to Windows XP as member of the Administrators group.
D.    Log on to Windows XP by using a user account that has an Encrypting File System (EFS) certificate.

Answer: B

QUESTION 154
Your company network has a single-domain Active Directory forest. The forest functional level is set to Windows Server 2008 R2. All computers are members of the domain.
You plan to deploy Windows BitLocker Drive Encryption (BitLocker) on portable computers that have Windows 8.1 installed.
You need to be able to automatically back up recovery passwords for BitLocker-protected disk volumes on the portable computers.
What should you do before you start encrypting the disk volumes with BitLocker?

A.    Run the cscript Add-TPMSelfWriteACE.vbs script on the portable computers.
B.    Run the cscript List-ACEs.vbs script on the portable computers.
C.    Run the cscript Get-TPMOwnerInfo.vbs script on the client computers.
D.    Select the Turn on Bitlocker backup to Active Directory option in local policy on the portable computers.

Answer: D

QUESTION 155
A user reports that he is unable to start his computer. He provides the following information:
– The boot partition is encrypted by using BitLocker Drive Encryption (BitLocker).
– The user cannot locate his BitLocker recovery key.
You need to start Windows 8.1 on the computer. The solution must use the minimum amount of administrative effort. What should you do?

A.    From the BIOS, disable the Trusted Platform Module (TPM).
B.    Start the computer from the Windows 8.1 installation media and select Repair your computer.
C.    Start the computer from the Windows 8.1 installation media, press SHIFT + F10, and then run chkdsk.
D.    Start the computer from the Windows 8.1 installation media and select Install now.

Answer: D

QUESTION 156
You have 100 computers that run Windows XP. Each computer has the following features:
– Contains a single hard disk drive.
– Contains a single partition.
– Supports USB devices during startup.
You are planning a clean installation of Windows 8.1. You need to ensure that the installation of Windows 8.1 will support BitLocker Drive Encryption on the system partition. What should you do?

A.    Perform a clean installation of Windows 8.1 by using the existing partition. Verify the status of the
partition by using manage-bde.exe.
B.    Verify that the computers have Trusted Platform Modules (TPM) version 1.2 security devices.
C.    Perform a clean installation of Windows 8.1 by using the existing partition. Encrypt a USB drive by
using the BitLocker-to-Go-Feature.
D.    Perform a clean installation of Windows 8.1 by using the existing partition. Use bdehdcfg.exe to
configure the partition.

Answer: D

QUESTION 157
You have a computer that runs Windows 8.1. Multiple users log on to the computer. You need to deny one user access to removable devices on the computer. All other users must have access to the removable drives. What should you do?

A.    From the local Group Policy, modify an application control policy.
B.    From Control Panel, modify the BitLocker Drive Encryption settings.
C.    From Device Manager, modify the settings of all removable devices.
D.    From the local Group Policy, modify a removable storage access policy.

Answer: D

QUESTION 158
You have a computer that runs Windows 8.1. You need to configure an application to connect to the computer by using the IPV6 loopback address. Which address should you specify?

A.    ::1
B.    12::1
C.    127.0.0.1
D.    fe80::f56f:56cb:a136:4184

Answer: A

QUESTION 159
Your network consists of a single Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
You have a server named Server1 that runs a custom network application.
Server1 has the following IP addresses:
– 192.168.15.10
– 192.168.15.11
You need to ensure that a client computer resolves server1.contoso.com to only the 192.168.15.11 IP address. What should you do from the computer?

A.    Edit the hosts file.
B.    Edit the lmhosts file.
C.    Run Ipconfig.exe /flushdns.
D.    Run Netsh interface ipv4 reset.

Answer: A

QUESTION 160
You have two computers on the same subnet. The computers have the IPv6 addresses shown in the following table:
 clip_image001[8]
You need to test the connection to the IPv6 address from Computer1 to Computer2. Which command should you run?

A.    Ping -6 fe80::44df:1b68%12
B.    Ping -6 fe80::44df:1b68%10
C.    Ping -R fe80::44df:1b68%12
D.    Ping -R fe80::44df:1b68%10

Answer: B

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