2014 Latest Citrix 1Y0-308 Exam Demo Free Download!

QUESTION 1
Which two steps should an administrator take to remove an Access Gateway appliance from an Access Gateway 4.5 Advanced Edition deployment? (Choose two.)

A.    The administrator should execute the "Remove Access Gateway" task from the "Gateway Appliances" node in the Access Management Console.
B.    The administrator should restart at least one Advanced Access Control server in the farm after configuring the Access Gateway appliance to be removed.
C.    The administrator should configure the Access Gateway appliance server so that it no longer points itself to an Advanced Access Control server in the deployment.
D.    The administrator should uncheck the "Access Gateway" role checkbox for the Access Gateway appliance to be removed in the "Manage Server Roles" dialog of the Access Management Console.

Answer: AC

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2014 Latest Citrix 1Y0-250 Exam Demo Free Download!

QUESTION 1
Scenario: An administrator is implementing a two-factor authentication solution with an RSA SecureID product. The administrator already has the server name and port number of the RSA server.

Which additional information does the administrator need to configure RSA SecureID?

A.    LDAP password
B.    Firewall access rule
C.    Authentication policy
D.    RADIUS shared secret

Answer: D

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2014 Latest Oracle 1Z0-047 Exam Demo Free Download!

QUESTION 1
View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the ORDERS table.
You have to display ORDER_ID, ORDER_DATE, and CUSTOMER_ID for all those orders that were placed after the last order placed by the customer whose CUSTOMER_ID is 101.
Which query would give you the desired output?
 clip_image002[1]

A.    SELECT order_id, order_date FROM orders
WHERE order_date > ALL (SELECT MAX(order_date)
FROM orders) AND
Customer_id = 101;
B.    SELECT order_id, order_date FROM orders
WHERE order_date > ANY (SELECT order_date
FROM orders
WHERE customer_id = 101);
C.    SELECT order_id, order_date FROM orders
WHERE order_date > ALL (SELECT order_date
FROM orders
WHERE customer_id = 101);
D.    SELECT order_id, order_date FROM orders
WHERE order_date IN (SELECT order_date
FROM orders
WHERE customer id = 101);

Answer: C

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2014 Latest Oracle 1Z0-822 Exam Demo Free Download!

QUESTION 1
You have assigned rights profiles directly to the uses frank and now you want to add another profile. Which command enables you to list profiles directly assigned to frank?

A.    userattr profiles frank
B.    profiles – p frank
C.    useratter -p frank
D.    profiles frank

Answer: B
Explanation:
http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E26502_01/html/E36219/rights-1.html (see the example 9-1)

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2014 Latest CompTIA LX0-101 Exam Demo Free Download!

QUESTION 1
You need to generate a report on all of the Exchange Server 2007 computers in your Exchange organization. The report must include:
– Operating system versionNumber of processors
– Total physical memory
– Number of storage groups
– Number of mailbox databases
What should you do?

A.    Run the Get-ExchangeServer | Format-List cmdlet.
B.    Run the Get-OrganizationConfig cmdlet.
C.    Run the Test-SystemHealth cmdlet.
D.    Run the Health Check scan in the Exchange Best Practices Analyzer.

Answer: D

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2014 Latest CompTIA LX0-102 Exam Demo Free Download!

QUESTION 1
When attempting to send a file to another user securely with GPG, which of the following actions must be done?

A.    Encrypt the file using your public key.
B.    Encrypt the file using their public key.
C.    Encrypt the file using your private key.
D.    Encrypt the file using their private key.
E.    Sign the file with your public key.

Answer: B

QUESTION 2
In xorg.conf, which of the following sections is concerned with fonts?

A.    The Fonts section
B.    The Files section
C.    The xfsCodes section
D.    The Graphics section
E.    The modeline section

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which of the following outputs will the below command sequence produce? echo ‘1 2 3 4 5 6’ | while read a b c; do echo result: $c $b $a; done

A.    result: 3 4 5 6 2 1
B.    result: 1 2 3 4 5 6
C.    result: 6 5 4
D.    result: 6 5 4 3 2 1
E.    result: 3 2 1

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
X is running okay but an administrator is concerned that the correct color depth set is not configured. Which of the following commands will show the administrator the running color depth while in X?

A.    xcd
B.    xcdepth
C.    xwininfo
D.    xcolordepth
E.    cat /etc/X11

Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which of the following words is used to restrict the records that are returned from a SELECT query based on supplied criteria for the values in the records?

A.    LIMIT
B.    FROM
C.    WHERE
D.    IF

Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which of the following outputs will the command seq 10 produce?

A.    A continuous stream of numbers increasing in increments of 10 until stopped.
B.    The numbers 1 through 10 with one number per line.
C.    The numbers 0 though 9 with one number per line.
D.    The number 10 to standard output.

Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which of the following is the purpose of the Sticky Keys feature in X?

A.    To assist users who have difficulty holding down multiple keys at once
B.    To prevent repeated input of a single character if the key is held down
C.    To ignore brief keystrokes according to a specified time limit
D.    To repeat the input of a single character

Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which of the following commands can be used to activate a specific network interface?

A.    ipup
B.    net
C.    ifup
D.    netup

Answer: C

QUESTION 9
An administrator is looking into a new script that they have just received from a senior administrator. In the very first line the administrator notices a #! followed by a path to a binary.
Linux will:

A.    ignore the script.
B.    use that binary to interpret the script.
C.    use that binary to compile the script.
D.    be replaced by that binary.

Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which of the following commands should be used to print a listing of emails in the system’s mail queue?

A.    sendmail -l
B.    lpq
C.    mailq
D.    mlq

Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Each entry in a crontab must end with which of the following characters?

A.    tab
B.    space
C.    backslash
D.    newline

Answer: D

QUESTION 12
A department decided to change the Gnome Display Manager’s greeting. Which of the following configuration files should an administrator edit?

A.    /etc/gnome/greeting
B.    /opt/gnome/share/greeting
C.    /etc/X11/gmd.conf
D.    /etc/X11/gdm/Init/Default

Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Which of the following are commonly used Mail Transfer Agent (MTA) applications? (Select THREE).

A.    postfix
B.    procmail
C.    sendmail
D.    exim
E.    smtpd

Answer: ACD

QUESTION 14
On a dual boot system, every time the system is booted back into Linux the time has been set backward by two hours. Which of the following commands will correct the problem so it will not occur again?

A.    ntpdate pool.ntp.org
B.    date -d ‘two hours’
C.    hwclock –hctosys –localtime
D.    time hwclock

Answer: C

QUESTION 15
Which of the following files, when using Sendmail or a similar MTA system, will allow a user to redirect all their mail to another address and is configurable by the user themselves?

A.    /etc/alias
B.    /etc/mail/forwarders
C.    ~/.alias
D.    ~/.forward

Answer: D
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2014 Latest CompTIA SG0-001 Exam Demo Free Download!

QUESTION 1
An administrator is attempting to recover corrupted data from a four disk RAID group. However, the administrator does not know which RAID level was used. When investigating the volumes, the administrator notes that there is a duplicate of all data on two of the disks. Which of the following RAID levels was in use?

A.    RAID 0
B.    RAID 5
C.    RAID 6
D.    RAID 10

Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Given an array with sixteen 300GB drives, a storage administrator needs to know how much raw usable space can be made available while still maintaining a highly available RAID configuration with two hot spares. Which of the following is the MAXIMUM capacity that can be allocated and at which RAID level?

A.    2.1TB, RAID 1
B.    3.6TB, RAID 6
C.    3.9TB, RAID 5
D.    4.8TB, RAID 0

Answer: C

QUESTION 3
When gathering simple baseline statistics for a storage array, a storage administrator should gather which of the following? (Select TWO).

A.    Read/Write errors
B.    Number of switches connected
C.    Reads/Writes performed
D.    Read/Write throughput
E.    Port loss of signal counts

Answer: CD

QUESTION 4
A server has dual power supplies, dual mirrored hard drives, multi-pathed multiple NICs, and a dual port HBA for access into a SAN. Which of the following components is a single point of failure?

A.    Power supplies
B.    HBA
C.    NICs
D.    System hard drives

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
A new storage array is being cabled into a rack. The array has dual controllers, each disk tray has dual power supplies, and there are two in-rack PDUs (C and D). Which of the following is the BEST method for hooking up power?

A.    Connect controller A’s PSUs to PDU C, controller B’s PSUs to D, alternate drive trays between PDUs C and D.
B.    Connect all drive tray PSUs to C and all controller PDUs to D.
C.    Connect both controller’s PSUs to C and all drive tray PSUs to D.
D.    Split all PSU connections between C and D equally.

Answer: D

QUESTION 6
An administrator needs to assign LUN IDs for two new LUNs from the same storage array. The
first LUN is being presented as LUN 0 to multiple hosts. The second LUN is being dedicated to a single server which is also included in the group of hosts LUN 0 is presented to. Which of the following is the LOWEST LUN ID that can be assigned to the second LUN?

A.    0
B.    1
C.    2
D.    16

Answer: B

QUESTION 7
In a direct current only datacenter, which of the following is the MOST important rack installation concern?

A.    Sufficient power capacity
B.    Adequate division of circuits
C.    Adequate humidity control
D.    Grounding of all components

Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which of the following are the MOST important properties to remember when replacing a faulty SFP? (Select TWO).

A.    SFP TX power
B.    Distance rating
C.    Port speed
D.    SFP RX power
E.    Driver version

Answer: BC

QUESTION 9
Which of the following is the MOST important item a storage administrator should check FIRST for a successful fabric merge?

A.    Faulty SFPs in the switch
B.    Number of aliases in the zoning database
C.    Domain IDs
D.    Total number of ports in the combined fabric

Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which of the following protocols transmits a password in clear text on the network during the login process?

A.    SFTP
B.    SSH
C.    Telnet
D.    HTTPS

Answer: C

QUESTION 11
A switch with 8Gb ports has been connected with five hosts running at 4Gb speed and two at 2Gb speed. If the switch is communicating through an ISL with another 8Gb switch where the storage array is connected, which of the following will be the oversubscription ratio of this configuration?

A.    1:1
B.    2:1
C.    3:1
D.    5:1

Answer: C

QUESTION 12
An administrator is tasked to programmatically create twenty 64GB LUNs and one 1GB LUN to be assigned to a four node cluster. Which of the following tools should be used to satisfy the request?

A.    CLI
B.    SMI-S
C.    GUI
D.    SNMP

Answer: A

QUESTION 13
A senior administrator configuring a firewall would like to know the IP address of a frequently accessed website to verify that site was not accidentally blocked in the content filter by the junior administrator’s recently-added range of blocked IP addresses. Which of the following tools would be used to find the IP address of the website?

A.    ipconfig/ifconfig
B.    nslookup
C.    netstat
D.    tracert/traceroute

Answer: B

QUESTION 14
A user reports lack of network connectivity on a laptop. No hardware changes have recently occurred on the laptop. Which of the following should the technician check FIRST?

A.    Port
B.    Cable
C.    Firewall
D.    NIC configuration

Answer: B

QUESTION 15
A small business would like to install their new storage equipment in a closet off of their pool deck. Which of the following environmental concerns should a technician consider FIRST?

A.    Fire suppression
B.    Humidity control
C.    Sufficient power
D.    Rack loading

Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Which of the following RAID levels provides the BEST guarantee that data will be retained in the event of drive failure without requiring a rebuild?

A.    RAID 0
B.    RAID 1
C.    RAID 3
D.    RAID 5

Answer: B
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QUESTION 1
Which command prevents Layer 2 loops if the switch stops receiving spanning-tree keepalives on port ge-1/0/1?

A.    [edit protocols rstp]
[email protected]# show
interface ge-1/0/1 {
  bpdu-block;
}
B.    [edit protocols layer2-control]
[email protected]# show
interface ge-1/0/1 {
  bpdu-time-out-action {
    block;
    alarm;
  }
}
C.    [edit protocols layer2-control]
[email protected]# show
bpdu-block {
  interface ge-1/0/1;
}
D.    [edit protocols rstp]
interface ge-1/0/1
{
  no-root-port;
}

Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Click the Exhibit button.
 clip_image001
You are attaching into an EX Series switch-1a legacy IP phone that does not support LLDP-MED, but does allow configuration using DHCP, as shown in the exhibit.
Your existing network QoS policies dictate that VoIP traffic must traverse over VLAN 10.
Which two actions put VoIP traffic onto VLAN 10? (Choose two.)

A.    Configure protocols cdp on switch-1.
B.    Manually configure the voice VLAN on the IP phone.
C.    Configure vlan 1 under forwarding-options bootp.
D.    Configure interface ge-0/0/5 under forwarding-options bootp.

Answer: BD

QUESTION 3
What are three types of port designation specific to Private VLANs? (Choose three.)

A.    Promiscuous ports
B.    Transparent ports
C.    PVLAN trunk ports
D.    Designated ports
E.    Isolated ports

Answer: ACE

QUESTION 4
Click the Exhibit button.
 clip_image001[4]
Looking at the output in the exhibit, why is the BGP neighbor not in Established state?

A.    BGP Refresh is not supported.
B.    Multihop is not configured.
C.    The peer address is not reachable.
D.    Authentication is configured.

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which two statements about MVRP on EX Series switches are true? (Choose two.)

A.    MVRP can add VLANs on access interfaces.
B.    MVRP can add VLANs on trunk interfaces.
C.    MVRP adds VLANs on MVRP-enabled interfaces by default.
D.    MVRP is in transparent mode on MVRP-enabled interfaces by default.

Answer: BC

QUESTION 6
Your customer has five office locations.
Each office location has 20 VLANs configured, one for each department.
Your engineering team has recently secured a government contract with strict regulations which require that engineers be placed into separate workgroups.
These workgroups cannot communicate with each other.
Without changing the primary VLAN assignments, which JUNOS feature meets this requirement with minimal configuration?

A.    Create a series of firewall filters to block users in each workgroup.
B.    Configure a Private VLAN and assign each workgroup a secondary VLAN.
C.    Configure Virtual Private LAN Service to isolate broadcast domain.
D.    Turn off the default BUM (Broadcast, unknown, multicast) flooding mode.

Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Click the Exhibit button.
 clip_image001[6]
In the exhibit, switches S1, S2, and S3 have Q-in-Q tunneling configured between Site 1 and Site 2.
Which configuration on switch S1 allows Site 1 and Site 2 to exchange Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP), but blocks VLAN Trunking Protocol (VTP) between Site 1 and Site 2?

A.    {master:0}[edit vlans provider-vlan]
[email protected]# set dot1q-tunneling layer2-protocol-tunneling cdp
B.    {master:0}[edit vlans provider-vlan]
[email protected]# set dot1q-tunneling l2tp cdp
C.    {master:0}[edit vlans provider-vlan]
[email protected]# set dot1q-tunneling layer2-protocol-tunneling deny vtp
D.    {master:0}[edit vlans provider-vlan]
[email protected]# set dot1q-tunneling l2tp deny vtp

Answer: A

QUESTION 8
A coffee shop offering free Internet service to customers wants to implement the following security policies:
1. Every customer must agree to a set of terms and conditions before accessing the Internet.
2. Log out customers that are logged in for more than one hour.
3. Log out customers that are idle for more than 5 minutes.
4. Authenticate employee desktop computers with known hardware addresses in the office of the coffee shop to access the Internet without the above restrictions.
The following configuration has been applied to the switch:
set access radius-server 172.16.14.26 port 1812
set access radius-server 172.16.14.26 secret [email protected]
set access profile dot1x authentication-order radius
set access profile dot1x radius authentication-server 172.27.14.226
What would you add to implement these policies?

A.    set protocols dot1x authenticator interface ge-0/0/12.0 supplicant multiple
set protocols dot1x authenticator interface ge-0/0/12.0 mac-radius
set protocols dot1x authenticator authentication-profile-name dot1x
set services captive-portal authentication-profile-name dot1x
set services captive-portal interface ge-0/0/12.0
set services captive-portal secure-authentication https
set services captive-portal custom-options header-message "Welcome to Our Coffee Shop"
set services captive-portal custom-options banner-message "Terms and Conditions of Use"
B.    set protocols dot1x authenticator interface ge-0/0/12.0 supplicant multiple
set protocols dot1x authenticator authentication-profile-name dot1x
set services captive-portal authentication-profile-name dot1x
set services captive-portal interface ge-0/0/12.0
set services captive-portal secure-authentication https
set services captive-portal custom-options header-message "Welcome to Our Coffee Shop"
set services captive-portal custom-options banner-message "Terms and Conditions of Use"
C.    set protocols dot1x authenticator interface ge-0/0/12.0 supplicant multiple
set protocols dot1x authenticator interface ge-0/0/12.0 mac-radius
set protocols dot1x authenticator authentication-profile-name dot1x
set services captive-portal authentication-profile-name dot1x
set services captive-portal interface ge-0/0/12.0
set services captive-portal interface ge-0/0/12.0 idle-timeout 300
set services captive-portal interface ge-0/0/12.0 user-timeout 3600
set services captive-portal secure-authentication https
set services captive-portal custom-options header-message "Welcome to Our Coffee Shop"
set services captive-portal custom-options banner-message "Terms and Conditions of Use"
D.    set protocols dot1x authenticator interface ge-0/0/12.0 supplicant multiple
set protocols dot1x authenticator interface ge-0/0/12.0 mac-radius
set protocols dot1x authenticator interface ge-0/0/12.0 idle-timeout 300
set protocols dot1x authenticator interface ge-0/0/12.0 user-timeout 3600
set protocols dot1x authenticator authentication-profile-name dot1x
set services captive-portal authentication-profile-name dot1x
set services captive-portal interface ge-0/0/12.0
set services captive-portal secure-authentication https
set services captive-portal custom-options header-message "Welcome to Our Coffee Shop"
set services captive-portal custom-options banner-message "Terms and Conditions of Use"

Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Click the Exhibit button.
 clip_image001[8]
In the PIM-SM network in the exhibit, all links in the topology have the same IGP metric configured.
Which link will not be on the RPT?

A.    R1-R4
B.    R3-R6
C.    R4-R5
D.    R5-R6

Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Click the Exhibit button.
 clip_image001[10]
In the exhibit, Site 1 is sending traffic on VLANs 100, 200, and 300.
The provider operating switch S1 must configure Q-in-Q tunneling to transport VLANs 100 and 200 to Site2.
The provider must configure switch S1 to block traffic received from site 1 on VLAN 300.
Which configuration accomplishes this goal?

A.    {master:0}[edit vlans pv200]
[email protected]# show
vlan-id 200;
interface {
  ge-0/0/0.0;
  ge-0/0/1.0;
}
dot1q-tunneling {
  customer-vlans [ 100 200 ];
}
B.    {master:0}[edit vlans pv200]
[email protected]# show
vlan-id [100 200];
interface {
  ge-0/0/0.0 {
    dot1q-tunneling {
      block-vlans 300;
    }
  }
  ge-0/0/1.0;
}
C.    {master:0}[edit vlans pv200]
[email protected]# show
vlan-id 200;
interface {
  ge-0/0/0.0;
  ge-0/0/1.0;
}
dot1q-tunneling {
  block-vlans 300;
}
D.    {master:0}[edit vlans pv200]
[email protected]# show
vlan-id 200;
interface {
  ge-0/0/0.0 {
    dot1q-tunneling {
      customer-vlans [ 100 200 ];
    }
  }
  ge-0/0/1.0;
}

Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Click the Exhibit button.
 clip_image001[12]
The four routers in the exhibit are participating in a multi-area OSPF topology.
Node B (in the upper right-hand corner) is an ASBR advertising an external route.
Node A (lower left-hand corner) receives the external route and begins to forward traffic to the ASBR.
How many hops will the packets take through this topology? (Do not count node A.)

A.    2
B.    3
C.    4
D.    5

Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Click the Exhibit button.
 clip_image001[14]
The phone connected to switch-1 in the exhibit cannot communicate with the rest of the network.
How do you solve this problem?

A.    Add the VLAN named voice as a member of the trunk on interface ge-0/0/12.0.
B.    Configure the voice VLAN on interface ge-0/0/6.0.
C.    Add interface ge-0/0/12.0 to the ethernet-switching-options voip hierarchy.
D.    Configure LLDP-MED for interface ge-0/0/12.0.

Answer: A

QUESTION 13
You are AS 6573.Which AS path regular expression matches only routes originated in your AS?

A.    "6573.*"
B.    ".*"
C.    "{"
D.    "^$"

Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Which protocol reachability is advertised by OSPFv2? (Choose two.)

A.    IPv4
B.    IPv5
C.    IPv6
D.    ISO

Answer: AD

QUESTION 15
Click the Exhibit button.
 clip_image002
You are using an IBGP route reflector within your network.
Your route reflector has received the 2001:1:2::/64 prefix, but it is not advertising the prefix to its cluster members.
After examining the route reflector, you notice the output shown in the exhibit.
Which configuration statement causes the route reflector to transmit the route to its IBGP peers?

A.    set protocols bgp group ibgpv6 advertise-inactive
B.    set protocols bgp group ibgpv6 accept-remote-nexthop
C.    set protocols bgp group ibgpv6 multipath
D.    set protocols bgp group ibgpv6 include-mp-next-hop

Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
Your ScreenOS device does not have a static IP address. You want to be able to access it using its FQDN. How would you implement this task?

A.    Configure a domain in DNS.
B.    Configure syslog.
C.    Configure SNMP.
D.    Configure DDNS.

Answer: D

QUESTION 2
You have just installed a new ScreenOS device in your network and you want only a select range of IP addresses to have administrative access to the device. Which choice will allow you to accomplish this?

A.    Configure a manager IP.
B.    Configure the management interface.
C.    Configure a management IP on the trust interface.
D.    Configure new system administrators.

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
A routing table contains an IBGP route for 192.168.0.0/24, a RIP route for 192.168.0.0/23, an OSPF route for 192.168.0.0/22, and a static route for 192.168.0.0/16. When the router receives traffic destined for 192.168.0.1, which route will the router use?

A.    the IBGP route
B.    the OSPF route
C.    the RIP route
D.    the static route

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
You are troubleshooting telnet traffic destined to IP address 10.10.10.1. You decide to run debug and want to set the flow filter. Which command will show only the telnet traffic going to the 10.10.10.1 address?

A.    ssg5-serial-> set ffilter dst-ip 10.10.10.1
ssg5-serial-> set ffilter dst-port 23
B.    ssg5-serial-> set ffilter dst-ip 10.10.10.1 dst-port 23
C.    ssg5-serial-> set ffilter dst-port 23
D.    ssg5-serial-> set ffilter dst-ip 10.10.10.1

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
You have enabled BGP on your ScreenOS device and configured a single EBGP peer. The CLI shows that the BGP connection is transitioning between the CONNECT and ACTIVE states, but never reaching the ESTABLISHED state. What are three reasons for this behavior? (Choose three.)

A.    The peer is blocking traffic destined for TCP port 179.
B.    The peer address is not configured correctly.
C.    The enable statement has not been configured for the peer.
D.    The peer AS number is not configured correctly.
E.    BGP has not been enabled on the virtual router.

Answer: ABD

QUESTION 6
You want to set up a last resort route and prevent route lookups in either the source-based routing table or the destination-based routing table. What should you do?

A.    Disable SIBR and create a default route in the trust-vr table using the null interface as the outgoing
interface with a higher metric than other routes.
B.    Disable SIBR and create a default route in the trust-vr table using the null interface as the outgoing
interface with a lower metric than other routes.
C.    Enable SIBR and create a default route in the SIBR table using the null interface as the outgoing
interface with a higher metric than other routes.
D.    Enable SIBR and create a default route in the SIBR table using the null interface as the outgoing
interface with a lower metric than other routes.

Answer: C

QUESTION 7
You have the following BGP configuration in place to establish a session with a remote peer over your ethernet4 interface.
set vrouter trust-vr protocol bgp 65000
set vrouter trust-vr protocol bgp enable
set vrouter trust-vr protocol bgp neighbor remote-as 65500
set vrouter trust-vr protocol bgp neighbor enable
Which additional statement is necessary to establish the session?

A.    set interface protocol bgp enable
B.    set interface ethernet4 bgp enable
C.    set vrouter trust-vr protocol bgp interface ethernet4
D.    set interface ethernet4 protocol bgp

Answer: D

QUESTION 8
You have only one public IP address available and you must allow external access to three servers on a DMZ network. Which two NAT types would allow you to accomplish your objective? (Choose two.)

A.    MIP
B.    VIP
C.    NAT-dst
D.    NAT-src

Answer: BC

QUESTION 9
Your ScreenOS device is configured with multiple NAT types.
What is the order of precedence in this situation?

A.    interface-based NAT -> VIP -> MIP -> policy-based NAT
B.    VIP -> MIP -> policy-based NAT -> interface-based NAT
C.    MIP -> VIP -> interface-based NAT -> policy-based NAT
D.    MIP -> VIP -> policy-based NAT -> interface-based NAT

Answer: D

QUESTION 10
You must translate a range of public IP addresses to a range of internal IP addresses. Which two mechanisms would you use to accomplish your objective? (Choose two.)

A.    MIP using masks
B.    VIP using masks
C.    policy-based NAT-dst
D.    policy-based NAT-src

Answer: AC

QUESTION 11
You enter the following commands:
snoop filter ip dst-ip 1.1.1.10
snoop filter ip src-ip 2.1.1.10
What is the net result of these settings?

A.    Only packets with both a dst-ip of 1.1.1.10 and a src-ip of 2.1.1.10 will be captured
B.    Packets that have either a dst-ip of 1.1.1.10 or packets with a src-ip of 2.1.1.10 will be captured
C.    The second command will be ignored since a second filter cannot be added until the first one has been deleted
D.    The second command you entered will overwrite the first command you entered so you will only capture traffic with a src-ip of 2.1.1.10

Answer: B
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QUESTION 1
Which OSPF LSA type is sent from the ABR to describe an ASBR that is in an area to which it is connected?

A.    Type 7
B.    Type 5
C.    Type 4
D.    Type 3

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Click the Exhibit button. You are asked to configure a new external BGP peering. You have configured BGP on R1 as shown in the exhibit, however the BGP peering remains in Active state.
Which additional configuration is required on R1 to establish the BGP peering?
 clip_image002[4]

A.    Configure the local-address.
B.    Configure the BGP type as external.
C.    Remove the local-as statement.
D.    Remove the autonomous-system statement.

Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which OSPF adjacency state is reached when a hello packet has been sent, but bidirectional communication has not been established?

A.    Down
B.    Init
C.    2-way
D.    ExStart

Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Based on the exhibit, which configuration will permit end-to-end routing through the GRE tunnel for R1?
 clip_image001[8]

A.    [edit]
[email protected]# show routing-options static
route 12.168.2.1/32 next-hop gr-0/0/0.0;
route 172.20.111.0/24 next-hop 12.168.1.1;
B.    [edit]
[email protected]# show routing-options static
route 12.168.2.1/32 next-hop gr-0/0/0.0;
route 172.20.111.0/24 next-hop 172..1.1;
C.    [edit]
[email protected]# show routing-options static
route 12.168.2.1/32 next-hop 172..1.1;
route 172.20.111.0/24 next-hop gr-0/0/0.0;
D.    [edit]
[email protected]# show routing-options static
route 12.168.2.1/32 next-hop 172..2.2;
route 172.20.111.0/24 next-hop 172..1.1;

Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which two OSPF areas allow external routes? (Choose two.)

A.    backbone area
B.    not-so-stubby area
C.    stub area
D.    totally stubby area

Answer: AB

QUESTION 6
Which LSA packet types are originated only by an OSPF ABR router?

A.    Type 2 and Type 3
B.    Type 3 and Type 4
C.    Type 5 and Type 6
D.    Type 6 and Type 7

Answer: B

QUESTION 7
In an OSPF environment, which two configuration parameters are used to determine which router is the DR? (Choose two.)

A.    the router with the highest priority
B.    the router with the lowest priority
C.    the router with the highest RID
D.    the router with the lowest RID

Answer: AC

QUESTION 8
You have entered the show ospf route command and see routes with a metric type of EXT2.
What does this indicate?

A.    These routes are OSPF interarea routes.
B.    These routes have been redistributed into OSPF and are using a Type 2 metric.
C.    These routes are preferred over the same routes with an EXT1 metric.
D.    These routes are OSPF intra-area routes.

Answer: B

QUESTION 9
You want to verify the frequency and type of SPF calculations on your Junos device.
Which command displays this information?

A.    show ospf database | match log
B.    show spf log
C.    show ospf log
D.    show ospf statistics

Answer: C

QUESTION 10
You are troubleshooting an OSPF adjacency that is stuck in the ExStart state.
What would be the correct step to resolve the problem?

A.    Look for a mismatched IP subnet or mask.
B.    Determine whether the neighbor is a DR-Other.
C.    Determine whether the hello and dead intervals are the same on both sides.
D.    Review the MTU settings to ensure that they match.

Answer: D

QUESTION 11
You are asked to redistribute routes into OSPF.
Which action accomplishes this task?

A.    Create a redistribution policy and apply it as an export policy under the [edit protocols ospf area] hierarchy.
B.    Create a redistribution policy and apply it as an import policy in the [edit protocols ospf] hierarchy.
C.    Create a redistribution policy and apply it as an import or an export policy in the [edit protocols ospf] hierarchy.
D.    Create a redistribution policy and apply it as an export policy in the [edit protocols ospf] hierarchy.

Answer: D

QUESTION 12
You are configuring OSPF on a Junos device; however, you have not configured a router ID.
What is the default behavior in this situation?

A.    If the loopback is configured with a 127/8 address, it will be used.
B.    If the loopback is not configured, it will use the interface with the highest IP address.
C.    If the loopback is configured and does not have a usable address, the IP address associated with the first hardware interface is used.
D.    If you configure a dedicated management address and include that interface in OSPF, it will be
used as the router ID.

Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Which two statements correctly describe IS-IS adjacencies? (Choose two.)

A.    Level 1 adjacencies can form in the same (intra) area only.
B.    Level 2 adjacencies are formed between (inter) areas only.
C.    Level 2 adjacencies can be established either interarea or intra-area.
D.    Level 2 adjacencies can form within the same (intra) area only.

Answer: AC

QUESTION 14
Which IS-IS PDU is used to request a retransmission of a missing link-state packet?

A.    the complete sequence number PDU
B.    the partial sequence number PDU
C.    a hello PDU with a request PDU TLV specifying the missing LSP
D.    a hello PDU with a refresh PDU TLV requesting all LSPs

Answer: B
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