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QUESTION 7
Drag and Drop Question
You create work items to test the features of an application. Match each work item type to its description. To answer, drag the appropriate work item type from the column on the left to its description on the right. Each work item type may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Each correct match is worth one point.
 clip_image002[14]
Answer:
 clip_image001[6]

QUESTION 8
Drag and Drop Question
Match each status to its test step. To answer, drag the appropriate status from the column on the left to its test step on the right. Each status may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Each correct match is worth one point.
 clip_image002[16]

Answer:
 clip_image001[8]

QUESTION 9
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. Bug tracking is the process of assigning severity and priority to a reported bug. Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select "No change is needed" if the underlined text makes the statement correct.

A.    No change is needed
B.    Logging
C.    Resolution
D.    Triage

Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Hotspot Question
You are asked to train an intern to create bug reports by using Team Foundation Server (TFS). You review the following bug report your intern created:
 clip_image002[18]
When this bug occurs, the user cannot continue using the application. Use the drop-down menus to complete each statement. Each correct selection is worth one point.
 clip_image001[10]
Answer:
 clip_image001[12]

QUESTION 11
You use Microsoft Test Manager to test a solution. Which two statements about using test cases in Microsoft Test Manager are correct? (Choose two.)

A.    You can share steps between different test cases.
B.    You need to add all fields to a test case when you create the test case.
C.    You must define test cases by using Microsoft Test Manager.
D.    You can add attachments and hyperlinks to test cases.

Answer: AD
Explanation:
http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/vstudio/dd380712(v=vs.110).aspx

QUESTION 12
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. Severitydescribes how much a defect affects an application. Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select "No change is needed" if the underlined text makes the statement correct.

A.    No change is needed
B.    Effect level
C.    Scope
D.    Priority

Answer: A

QUESTION 13
You need to show the rolling average of the number of bugs that the testing team has opened, resolved, and closed.
Which report should you show?

A.    Bug trend
B.    Build quality indicators
C.    Bug status
D.    Burn rate

Answer: A

QUESTION 14
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. Bug convergence is the point at which the number of bugs resolved exceeds the number of bugs found.
Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select "No change is needed" if the underlined text makes the statement correct.

A.    No change is needed
B.    Baseline
C.    Burndown
D.    Code coverage

Answer: A

QUESTION 15
How many test plans are created in projects that use an agile methodology?

A.    One master test plan and one test plan for each sprint
B.    One test plan for each sprint
C.    One master test plan
D.    Multiple test plans for each sprint

Answer: A
 

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QUESTION 1
When you log a bug, which two items should you include in the bug report to reproduce the bug? (Choose two.)

A.    The actions leading up to the bug
B.    The author of the code
C.    A description of the actual results
D.    The severity of bug

Answer: AB

QUESTION 2
Hotspot Question
You run a load test in Microsoft Test Manager. You monitor performance counters by using the Load Test Analyzer. The following graphic displays representative data:
 clip_image002[12]
Use the drop-down lists to complete each statement. Each correct selection is worth one point.

 clip_image001
Answer:
 clip_image001[4]

QUESTION 3
As part of a development team in a test-driven development environment, you are given the requirements for a new software system.
What should you do first?

A.    Implement the system in the code.
B.    Write a user story for the system.
C.    Run all existing test cases to validate they succeed.
D.    Write a test case for the new system.

Answer: D

QUESTION 4
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. In a use case diagram, the association between an actor and a use case can show a generalization at each end.
Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select "No change is needed" if the underlined text makes the statement correct.

A.    No change is needed
B.    Alternative
C.    Multiplicity
D.    Subsystem boundary

Answer: C

QUESTION 5
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. Fault tolerance is a redundancy technique that completely hides errors within a set of redundant modules.
Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select "No change is needed" if the underlined text makes the statement correct.

A.    No change is needed
B.    Fault masking
C.    Exception handling
D.    Regression testing

Answer: B

QUESTION 6
A system has the following requirement:
Patients should be sent to the Emergency Room if their respiratory rate is >= 20 and their age is >= 65.
How many test cases should you write to test all combinations of conditions?

A.    0
B.    2
C.    4
D.    9

Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
You want to add a new CDC subscriber in ODI after you have started the Journal process, what steps do you need to go through in order to use this new subscriber?

A.    Drop Journal, remove existing subscribers, add a new subscriber, start Journal, and edit the default Journalizing filter in your Interfaces
B.    Drop Journal,add anew subscriber, start Journal, and remove the default Journalizing filter in your Interfaces
C.    Drop Journal, add a new subscriber, start Journal, and edit the default Journalizing filter in your Interfaces
D.    Add anew subscriber and edit the default Journalizing filter in your Interfaces

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
You are loading a file into a database but the file name is unknown at design time and will have to be passed dynamically to a Package at run time; how do you achieve this?

A.    Create a variable, use it in Topology at the File dataserver-level, and add it to a package as a Declare Variable step
B.    Create a variable, use it in Topology at the File dataserver-level, and add it to a package as a Set Variable step
C.    Create a variable, use it as the Resource Name of the File datastore, and add it to a package as a Declare Variable step
D.    Create a variable, use it as the Resource Name of the File datastore, and add it to a package as a Set Variable step

Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Select the two correct statements about the Date Profiler.

A.    It can profile string dates written in a variety of formats, such as DD/MM/YYYY or MM/DD/YYYY.
B.    It provides a distribution for the day in the year, such as February 21, regardless of the year.
C.    It allows the EDQ user to define a valid range of dates.
D.    By clicking a date in blue, the user can drill down to the records that carried that value.
E.    It rejects February 29 as an invalid date.

Answer: AD

QUESTION 4
Which two ODI knowledge modules are included in the Application Adapter for Hadoop?

A.    IKM Oracle Incremental Update
B.    IKM Hive Transform
C.    IKM SQL to File Append
D.    IKM FiletoHive

Answer: BD
Explanation:
http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E27101_01/doc.10/e27365/odi.htm

QUESTION 5
When working with delimited flat files, is it possible to enforce primary key on a flat file using a CKM?

A.    No, it is not possible to enforce constraints on some technologies such as flat files and JMS queues.
B.    No, it is not possible to enforce constraints on any technology.
C.    Yes, it is possible also to forward-engineer it to the flat file definition.
D.    Yes, but you have to save it as a fixed file.

Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
Which of the following protocols operates at the HIGHEST level of the OSI model?

A.    ICMP
B.    IPSec
C.    SCP
D.    TCP

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which of the following should an administrator implement to research current attack methodologies?

A.    Design reviews
B.    Honeypot
C.    Vulnerability scanner
D.    Code reviews

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Drag and Drop Question
Task: Determine the types of attacks below by selecting an option from the dropdown list.
 clip_image002
Answer:
 clip_image002[4]

QUESTION 4
Which of the following can be implemented in hardware or software to protect a web server from cross-site scripting attacks?

A.    Intrusion Detection System
B.    Flood Guard Protection
C.    Web Application Firewall
D.    URL Content Filter

Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which of the following means of wireless authentication is easily vulnerable to spoofing?

A.    MAC Filtering
B.    WPA – LEAP
C.    WPA – PEAP
D.    Enabled SSID

Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Lab Sim – Configure the Firewall
Task: Configure the firewall (fill out the table) to allow these four rules:
– Only allow the Accounting computer to have HTTPS access to the Administrative server.
– Only allow the HR computer to be able to communicate with the Server 2 System over SCP.
– Allow the IT computer to have access to both the Administrative Server 1 and Administrative Server 2
 clip_image002[6]
 clip_image002[8]
Answer:
Use the following answer for this simulation task. Below table has all the answers required for this question.
 clip_image002[10]

QUESTION 7
Jane, a security administrator, needs to implement a secure wireless authentication method that uses a remote RADIUS server for authentication.
Which of the following is an authentication method Jane should use?

A.    WPA2-PSK
B.    WEP-PSK
C.    CCMP
D.    LEAP

Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Computer evidence at a crime scene is documented with a tag stating who had possession of the evidence at a given time.
Which of the following does this illustrate?

A.    System image capture
B.    Record time offset
C.    Order of volatility
D.    Chain of custody

Answer: D

QUESTION 9
A network administrator is configuring access control for the sales department which has high employee turnover. Which of the following is BEST suited when assigning user rights to individuals in the sales department?

A.    Time of day restrictions
B.    Group based privileges
C.    User assigned privileges
D.    Domain admin restrictions

Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which of the following is being tested when a company’s payroll server is powered off for eight hours?

A.    Succession plan
B.    Business impact document
C.    Continuity of operations plan
D.    Risk assessment plan

Answer: C

QUESTION 11
A security analyst, Ann, is reviewing an IRC channel and notices that a malicious exploit has been created for a frequently used application. She notifies the software vendor and asks them for remediation steps, but is alarmed to find that no patches are available to mitigate this vulnerability.
Which of the following BEST describes this exploit?

A.    Malicious insider threat
B.    Zero-day
C.    Client-side attack
D.    Malicious add-on

Answer: B

QUESTION 12
A security administrator has concerns about new types of media which allow for the mass distribution of personal comments to a select group of people. To mitigate the risks involved with this media, employees should receive training on which of the following?

A.    Peer to Peer
B.    Mobile devices
C.    Social networking
D.    Personally owned devices

Answer: C

QUESTION 13
A network administrator is responsible for securing applications against external attacks. Every month, the underlying operating system is updated. There is no process in place for other software updates.
Which of the following processes could MOST effectively mitigate these risks?

A.    Application hardening
B.    Application change management
C.    Application patch management
D.    Application firewall review

Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
What is the result of the following bitwise operation in PHP?
1 ^ 2

A.    1
B.    3
C.    2
D.    4
E.    -1

Answer: B

QUESTION 2
What is the output of the following code?
echo "22" + "0.2", 23 . 1;

A.    220.2231
B.    22.2231
C.    22.2,231
D.    56.2

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
What is the output of the following code?
$first = "second";
$second = "first";
echo $$$first;

A.    "first"
B.    "second"
C.    an empty string
D.    an error

Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Your supervisor wants you to disallow PHP scripts to open remote HTTP and FTP resources using PHP’s file functions. Which php.ini setting should you change accordingly?
Answer: allow_url_fopen, allow_url_fopen=off, allow_url_fopen=Off, allow_url_fopen = off, allow_url_fopen = Off

QUESTION 5
Which of the following code snippets DO NOT write the exact content of the file "source.txt" to "target.txt"? (Choose 2)

A.    file_put_contents("target.txt", fopen("source.txt", "r"));
B.    file_put_contents("target.txt", readfile("source.txt"));
C.    file_put_contents("target.txt", join(file("source.txt"), "\n"));
D.    file_put_contents("target.txt", file_get_contents("source.txt"));
E.    $handle = fopen("target.txt", "w+"); fwrite($handle, file_get_contents("source.txt")); fclose($handle);

Answer: BC

QUESTION 6
What is the recommended method of copying data between two opened files?

A.    copy($source_file, $destination_file);
B.    copy($destination_file, $source_file);
C.    stream_copy_to_stream($source_file, $destination_file);
D.    stream_copy_to_stream($destination_file, $source_file);
E.    stream_bucket_prepend($source_file, $destination_file);

Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which of the following will set a 10 seconds read timeout for a stream?

A.    ini_set("default_socket_timeout", 10);
B.    stream_read_timeout($stream, 10);
C.    Specify the timeout as the 5th parameter to the fsockopen() function used to open a stream
D.    stream_set_timeout($stream, 10);
E.    None of the above

Answer: D

QUESTION 8
What function allows resizing of PHP’s file write buffer?

A.    ob_start()
B.    set_write_buffer()
C.    stream_set_write_buffer()
D.    Change the output_buffering INI setting via ini_set() function

Answer: C

QUESTION 9
What does the __FILE__ constant contain?

A.    The filename of the current script.
B.    The full path to the current script.
C.    The URL of the request made.
D.    The path to the main script.

Answer: B

QUESTION 10
What can prevent PHP from being able to open a file on the hard drive (Choose 2)?

A.    File system permissions
B.    File is outside of open_basedir
C.    File is inside the /tmp directory.
D.    PHP is running in CGI mode.

Answer: AB

QUESTION 11
What purpose do namespaces fulfill?

A.    Encapsulation
B.    Alternative to classes
C.    Improved performance
D.    All of the above

Answer: A

QUESTION 12
When would you use classes and when would you use namespaces?

A.    Use classes to encapsulate code and represent objects, and namespaces to avoid symbol name collisions
B.    Use classes for performance-sensitive code, and namespaces when readability matters more
C.    Use namespaces for performance-sensitive code, and classes when readability matters more
D.    Always use them; namespaces are always superior to classes

Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which of these elements can be encapsulated by namespaces and made accessible from the outside?

A.    Only classes
B.    Classes, functions and constants
C.    Classes, functions, constants and variables

Answer: B

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QUESTION 11
Which piece of code will return the ASCII value of a character?

A.    (int)’t’;
B.    ord(‘t’);
C.    to_ascii(‘t’);
D.    chr(‘t’);

Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which of the following data types cannot be directly manipulated by the client?

A.    Cookie Data
B.    Session Data
C.    Remote IP Address
D.    User Agent

Answer: B

QUESTION 13
An HTML form contains this form element:
<input type=”image” name=”myImage” src=”image.png” />
The user clicks on the image to submit the form. How can you now access the relative coordinates of the mouse click?

A.    $_IMAGE[‘myImage’][‘x’] and $_IMAGE[‘myImage’][‘y’]
B.    $_POST[‘myImage’][‘x’] and $_POST[‘myImage’][‘x’]
C.    $_POST[‘myImage.x’] and $_POST[‘myImage.y’]
D.    $_POST[‘myImage_x’] and $_POST[‘myImage_y’]

Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Which of the following statements is correct?

A.    Interfaces can extend only one interface
B.    Interfaces can extend more than one interface
C.    Interfaces can inherit a method from different interfaces
D.    Interfaces can redeclare inherited methods

Answer: B

QUESTION 15
You are creating an application that generates invoices in a variety of formats, including PDF, ODS and HTML. Each of these formats is represented as a PHP class in your application. While some of the operations can be performed on all of the different formats (such as saving and loading), other operations may be specific to one or two of the formats (such as setting as read only). Which design pattern should you use for this application?

A.    Adapter
B.    Factory
C.    MVC
D.    Singleton

Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
Which of the following can be registered as entry points with a SoapServer instance (choose 3)

A.    A single function
B.    A single method from a class
C.    Multiple functions at once
D.    All methods from a class
E.    All classes defined in a script

Answer: ACD

QUESTION 2
What DOMElement method should be used to check for availability of a non-namespaced attribute?

A.    getAttributeNS()
B.    getAttribute()
C.    hasAttribute()
D.    hasAttributeNS()

Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which of the following data types is implicitly passed by reference in PHP 5 while it is passed by value in PHP 4?

A.    Class
B.    String
C.    Object
D.    Array

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
REST is a(n) …

A.    Web service protocol similar to SOAP with a strict XML schema.
B.    Principle to exchange information using XML and HTTP.
C.    API to get information from social networking sites.

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
What is the output of the following code?
echo 0×33, ‘ monkeys sit on ‘, 011, ‘ trees.’;

A.    33 monkeys sit on 11 trees.
B.    51 monkeys sit on 9 trees.
C.    monkeys sit on trees.
D.    0×33 monkeys sit on 011 trees.

Answer: B

QUESTION 6
When checking whether two English words are pronounced alike, which function should be used for the best possible result?

A.    levenshtein()
B.    metaphone()
C.    similar_text()
D.    soundex()

Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Given the following code, what is correct?
function f(stdClass &$x = NULL) { $x = 42;
}
$z = new stdClass;
f($z);
var_dump($z);

A.    Error: Typehints cannot be NULL
B.    Error: Typehints cannot be references
C.    Result is NULL
D.    Result is object of type stdClass
E.    Result is 42

Answer: E

QUESTION 8
What is the maximum size of the VARCHAR column type?

A.    255 Bytes
B.    255 Characters
C.    512 Bytes
D.    512 Characters
E.    No Limit

Answer: B

QUESTION 9
What is the output of the following code?
<code>
class test {
public $value = 0;
function test() {
$this->value = 1;
} function __construct() {
$this->value = 2;
}}
$object = new test();
echo $object->value;

A.    2
B.    1
C.    0
D.    3
E.    No Output, PHP will generate an error message.

Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Transactions can be used to: (Choose 2)

A.    Recover from errors in case of a power outage or a failure in the SQL connection
B.    Ensure that the data is properly formatted
C.    Ensure that either all statements are performed properly, or that none of them are.
D.    Recover from user errors

Answer: AC

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2014 Latest HP HP2-Z30 Demo Free Download!

QUESTION 1
Which Layer 2 mechanism should be used to authenticate wireless or wired users before allowing them access to network resources?

A.    802.1X
B.    MIMO
C.    802.1Z
D.    WPA

Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which HP switch supports nine switches in an IRF topology?

A.    5120-SI
B.    9 5820
C.    7500
D.    12500

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which component of an HP Comware switch controls logging on to a syslog server?

A.    Log Parser
B.    Event Analyzer
C.    Information Center
D.    Event Log

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
What is the default username and password an administrator would use to log into a new HP MSM access point?

A.    username of “hp” and password of “hp”
B.    username of “msm” and password of “wireless”
C.    username of “admin” and password of “hp”
D.    username of “admin” and password of “admin”

Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which Intelligent Management Center (IMC) group role allows an administrator to manage networking devices, but cannot add new IMC administrative users?

A.    Operator
B.    Administrator
C.    Manager
D.    Maintainer

Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
HP Intelligent Management Centers (IMC’s) Intelligent Configuration Center and Access Control List (ACL) Manager align with which FCAPS category?

A.    Performance
B.    Fault
C.    Accounting
D.    Configuration

Answer: B

QUESTION 2
A customer wants to implement a network access control solution to ensure that only devices which meet company policies are allowed to access the network. Which HP Intelligent Management Center (IMC) modules should you recommend?

A.    Branch Intelligent Management System (BIMS) and Service Health Manager
B.    User Access Management (UAM) and Endpoint Admission Defense (EAD)
C.    User Behavior Analyzer (UBA) and Endpoint Admission Defense (EAD)
D.    User Behavior Analyzer (UBA) and Intelligent Analysis Reporter

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which switch series supports meshed stacking, a feature that is similar to Intelligent Resilient Framework (IRF)?

A.    HP 3500 Switch Series
B.    HP 3800 Switch Series
C.    HP 5400 21 Switch Series
D.    HP 5500 HI Switch Series

Answer: B
Explanation:
http://h30507.www3.hp.com/t5/HP-Networking/5-network-stacking-technology-benefits- Intelligent-Resilient/ba-p/122081#.UweFeUKSxHg

QUESTION 4
Which router would you recommend for a large campus that requires the highest performance?

A.    HP MSR930 Series
B.    HP MSR2000 Series
C.    HP HSR6600 Router Series
D.    HP HSR6800 Router Series

Answer: D
Explanation:
http://h17007.www1.hp.com/us/en/networking/products/routers/HP_HSR6800_Router_Series/ind ex.aspx

QUESTION 5
A company needs a data center network solution that isolates different departments’ traffic completely to maintain regulatory compliance. It also needs to save space and purchase as few physical switches as possible. Which HP FlexFabric switch technology meets these needs?

A.    HP Multitenant Device Context (MDC)
B.    HP Virtual Cloud Network (VCN)
C.    HP Virtual Connect FlexFabric
D.    HP Intelligent Resilient Framework (IRF)

Answer: A
Explanation:
http://h20195.www2.hp.com/v2/GetPDF.aspx%2Fc03597043.pdf (page 73)
 

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Vendor: Cisco
Exam Code: 010-151
Exam Name: Supporting Cisco Data Center System Devices
Version: DEMO
 
QUESTION 1
Which three statements about FCoE are true? (Choose three.)

A.    Allows Fibre Channel and Ethernet networks to share a single, integrated infrastructure.
B.    Encapsulates Fibre Channel frames into Ethernet frames, which allows them to run alongside traditional IP traffic.
C.    Increases capital costs due to the difficulty to manage.
D.    Consolidates I/O traffic in the data center.

Answer: ABD

QUESTION 2
Which cable is used to access the command-line interface of a Cisco UCS 6120XP Fabric Interconnects?

A.    KVM cable
B.    console cable
C.    Ethernet cable
D.    SFP+ Ethernet transceiver cable

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Where do you find the model number of a Cisco MDS 9200 Series chassis?

A.    on the top front of the chassis next to the serial number
B.    on the bottom front of the chassis next to the Cisco logo
C.    on the top front of the chassis next to the Cisco logo
D.    on the bottom front of the chassis next to the serial number

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
How do you find the serial number of a Cisco UCS 5108 Blade Server chassis?

A.    Use the Cisco UCS Admin.
B.    Use the Cisco UCS Application.
C.    Use the Cisco UCS Assistant.
D.    Use the Cisco UCS Manager.

Answer: D

QUESTION 5
What does the system status LED look like when an over temperature or major alarm occurs on the Cisco UCS 6120XP Fabric Interconnect?

A.    Amber
B.    Red
C.    Blinking amber
D.    Blinking red

Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which processor option is supported in the Cisco UCS C420 M3 Server?

A.    up to two Intel Xeon E5-4600 series multicore processors
B.    up to two Intel Xeon E7-4800 series multicore processors
C.    up to four Intel Xeon E5-4600 series multicore processors
D.    two or four Intel Xeon E7-8800 series multicore processors

Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which two major components does a Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch have? (Choose two.)

A.    Virtual Fiber Channel Module
B.    Virtual Ethernet Module
C.    Virtual Supervisor Module
D.    Virtual Memory Controller Module
E.    Virtual Network Module

Answer: BC

QUESTION 8
Which Cisco Nexus 5000 Series model supports 1/10G BASE-T ports?

A.    Cisco Nexus 5548P
B.    Cisco Nexus 5548UP
C.    Cisco Nexus 5596UP
D.    Cisco Nexus 5596T

Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which Cisco MDS model supports the most Fibre Channel ports per chassis?

A.    MDS 9513
B.    MDS 9509
C.    MDS 9506
D.    MDS 9250i

Answer: A

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clip_image001

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QUESTION 41
Your network contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the Active Directory Certificate Services server role installed and is configured as a standalone certification authority (CA). You install a second server named Server2. You install the Online Responder role service on Server2. You need to ensure that Server1 can issue an Online Certificate Status Protocol (OCSP) Response Signing certificate to Server2. What should you do?

A.    On Server1, run the certutil.exe command and specify the -setreg parameter.
B.    On Server2, run the certutil.exe command and specify the -policy parameter.
C.    On Server1, configure Security for the OCSP Response Signing certificate template.
D.    On Server2, configure Issuance Requirements for the OCSP Response Signing certificate template.

Answer: C
Explanation:
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc732526.aspx

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QUESTION 42
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains a server named CA1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. CA1 has the Active Directory Certificate Services server role installed and is configured to support key archival and recovery. You need to ensure that a user named User1 can decrypt private keys archived in the Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS) database. The solution must prevent User1 from retrieving the private keys from the AD CS database. What should you do?

A.    Assign User1 the Issue and Manage Certificates permission to Server1.
B.    Assign User1 the Read permission and the Write permission to all certificate templates.
C.    Provide User1 with access to a Key Recovery Agent certificate and a private key.
D.    Assign User1 the Manage CA permission to Server1.

Answer: C

QUESTION 43
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains two sites named Site1 and Site2 and two domain controllers named DC1 and DC2. Both domain controllers are located in Site1. You install an additional domain controller named DC3 in Site1 and you ship DC3 to Site2. A technician connects DC3 to Site2. You discover that users in Site2 are authenticated by all three domain controllers. You need to ensure that the users in Site2 are authenticated by DC1 or DC2 only if DC3 is unavailable. What should you do?

A.    From Network Connections, modify the IP address of DC3.
B.    In Active Directory Sites and Services, modify the Query Policy of DC3.
C.    From Active Directory Sites and Services, move DC3.
D.    In Active Directory Users and Computers, configure the insDS-PrimaryComputer attribute for the
users in Site2.

Answer: C
Explanation:
http://social.technet.microsoft.com/wiki/contents/articles/7573.active-directory-certificateservices- pki-keyarchival-and-anagement.aspx#Protecting_Key_Recovery_Agent_Keys

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QUESTION 44
Your network contains two Active Directory forests named contoso.com and adatum.com. Contoso.com contains one domain. Adatum.com contains a child domain named child.adatum.com. Contoso.com has a one-way forest trust to adatum.com. Selective authentication is enabled on the forest trust. Several user accounts are migrated from child.adatum.com to adatum.com. Users report that after the migration, they fail to access resources in contoso.com. The users successfully accessed the resources in contoso.com before the accounts were migrated. You need to ensure that the migrated users can access the resources in contoso.com. What should you do?

A.    Replace the existing forest trust with an external trust.
B.    Run netdom and specify the /quarantine attribute.
C.    Disable SID filtering on the existing forest trust.
D.    Disable selective authentication on the existing forest trust.

Answer: C
Explanation:
B. Enables administrators to manage Active Directory domains and trust relationships from the command prompT, /quarantine Sets or clears the domain quarantine C. Need to gran access to the resources in contoso.com
D. Selective authentication over a forest trust restricts access to only those users in a trusted forest who have been explicitly given authentication permissions to computer objects (resource
computers) that reside in the trusting forest
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc755321(v=ws.10).aspx http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc758152(v=ws.10).aspx

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QUESTION 45
You have four servers that run Windows Server 2012 R2. The servers have the Failover Clustering feature installed. You deploy a new cluster named Cluster1. Cluster1 is configured as shown in the following table.

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Site2 is a disaster recovery site. Server1, Server2, and Server3 are configured as the preferred owners of the cluster roles. Dynamic quorum management is disabled. You plan to perform hardware maintenance on Server3. You need to ensure that if the WAN link between Site1 and Site2 fails while you are performing maintenance on Server3, the cluster resource will remain available in Site1. What should you do?

A.    Enable dynamic quorum management.
B.    Remove the node vote for Server3.
C.    Add a file share witness in Site1.
D.    Remove the node vote for [C1] Server4 and Server5.

Answer: D
Explanation:
http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh270280.aspx#VotingandNonVotingNodes

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QUESTION 46
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server2 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You are a member of the local Administrators group on Server2. You install an Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS) root cluster on Server2. You need to ensure that the AD RMS cluster is discoverable automatically by the AD RMS client computers and the users in contoso.com. Which additional configuration settings should you configure?
To answer, select the appropriate tab in the answer area.

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Answer:

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QUESTION 47
You plan to deploy a failover cluster that will contain two nodes that run Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to configure a witness disk for the failover cluster. How should you configure the witness disk? To answer, drag the appropriate configurations to the correct location or locations. Each configuration may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.

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Answer:

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QUESTION 48
You have a test server named Server1 that is configured to dual-boot between Windows Server 2008 R2 and Windows Server 2012 R2. You start Server1 and you discover that the boot entry for Windows Server 2008 R2 no longer appears on the boot menu. You start Windows Server 2012 R2 on Server1 and you discover the disk configurations shown in the following table.

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You need to restore the Windows Server 2008 R2 boot entry on Server1. What should you do?

A.    Run bcdedit.exe and specify the /createstore parameter.
B.    Run bootrec.exe and specify the /scanos parameter.
C.    Run bcdboot.exe d:\windows.
D.    Run bootrec.exe and specify the /rebuildbcd parameter.

Answer: D
Explanation:
A. BCDEdit is a command-line tool for managing BCD stores. It can be used for a variety of purposes, including creating new stores, modifying existing stores, adding boot menu options, /Createstore Creates a new empty boot configuration data store. The created store is not a system store. B. Bootrec.exe tool to troubleshoot “Bootmgr Is Missing” issue. The /ScanOs option scans all disks for installations that are c mpatible with Windows Vista or Windows 7. Additionally, this option displays the entries that are currently not in the BCD store. Use this option when there are Windows Vista or Windows 7 installations that the Boot Manager menu does not list.
C.
D. Bootrec.exe tool to troubleshoot “Bootmgr Is Missing” issue. The /ScanOs option scans all disks for installations that are compatible with Windows Vista or Windows 7. Additionally, this option displays the entries that are currently not in the BCD store. Use this option when there are Windows Vista or Windows 7 installations that the Boot Manager menu does not list.
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc709667(v=ws.10).aspx http://support.microsoft.com/kb/927392/en-us

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QUESTION 49
You have a DHCP server named Server1. Server1 has one network adapter. Server1 is located on a subnet named Subnet1. Server1 has scope named Scope1. Scope1 contains IP addresses for the 192.168.1.0/24 network. Your company is migrating the IP addresses on Subnet1 to use a network ID of 10.10.0.0/16. On Server11 you create a scope named Scope2. Scope2 contains IP addresses for the 10.10.0.0/16 network. You need to ensure that clients on Subnet1 can receive IP addresses from either scope. What should you create on Server1?

A.    A multicast scope
B.    A scope
C.    A superscope
D.    A split-scope

Answer: C
Explanation:
A. Multicasting is the sending of network traffic to a group of endpointsdestination hosts. Only those members in the group of endpoints hosts that are listening for the multicast traffic (the multicast group) process the multicast traffic
B. A scope is an administrative grouping of IP addresses for computers on a subnet that use the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) service. The administrator first creates a scope for each physical subnet and then uses the scope to define the parameters used by clients. C. A superscope is an administrative feature of Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) servers running Windows Server 2008 that you can create and manage by using the DHCP Microsoft Management Console (MMC) snap-in. By using a superscope, you can group multiple scopes as a single administrative entity.
D.
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dd759152.aspx http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dd759218.aspx http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dd759168.aspx

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QUESTION 50
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains a domain controller named DC1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. On Dc1, you open DNS Manager as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

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You need to change the zone type of the contoso.com zone from an Active Directory-integrated zone to a standard primary zone. What should you do before you change the zone type?

A.    Unsign the zone.
B.    Modify the Zone Signing Key (ZSK).
C.    Modify the Key Signing Key (KSK).
D.    Change the Key Master.

Answer: A
Explanation:
A. Lock icon indicating that it is currently signed with DNSSEC, zone must be unsignes
B. An authentication key that corresponds to a private key used to sign a zone.
C. The KSK is an authentication key that corresponds to a private key used to sign one or more other signing keys for a given zone. Typically, the private key corresponding to a KSK will sign a ZSK, which in turn has a corresponding private key that will sign other zone data.
D.
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh831411.aspx
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ee649132(v=ws.10).aspx

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QUESTION 31
Your network contains three Active Directory forests. Each forest contains an Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS) root cluster. All of the users in all of the forests must be able to access protected content from any of the forests. You need to identify the minimum number of AD RMS trusts required. How many trusts should you identify?

A.    2
B.    3
C.    4
D.    6

Answer: D

QUESTION 32
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2. The domain contains a domain controller named DC1 that is configured as an enterprise root certification authority (CA). All users in the domain are issued a smart card and are required to log on to their domain-joined client computer by using their smart card. A user named User1 resigned and started to work for a competing company. You need to prevent User1 immediately from logging on to any computer in the domain. The solution must not prevent other users from logging on to the domain. Which tool should you use?

A.    Active Directory Sites and Services
B.    Active Directory Administrative Center
C.    Server Manager
D.    Certificate Templates

Answer: B

QUESTION 33
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a domain controller named DC1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. DC1 has the DHCP Server server role installed. DHCP is configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

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You discover that client computers cannot obtain IPv4 addresses from DC1. You need to ensure that the client computers can obtain IPv4 addresses from DC1. What should you do?

A.    Activate the scope.
B.    Authorize DC1.
C.    Disable the Allow filters.
D.    Disable the Deny filters.

Answer: C
Explanation:
There is no items in the deny List. So it means that client computers MAC addresses is not listed in the allow list. So we have to disable the “Allow Filters” http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ee956897(v=ws.10).aspx

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QUESTION 34
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a file server named Server1 and a domain controller named DC1. All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2. A Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1 is linked to the domain. Server1 contains a folder named Folder1. Folder1 is shared as Share1. You need to ensure that authenticated users can request assistance when they are denied access to the resources on Server1. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    Assign the Read Attributes NTFS permission on Folder1 to the Authenticated Users group.
B.    Install the File Server Resource Manager role service on Server1.
C.    Configure the Customize message for Access Denied errors policy setting of GPO1.
D.    Enable the Enable access-denied assistance on client for all file types policy setting for GPO1.
E.    Install the File Server Resource Manager role service on DC1.

Answer: BD
Explanation:
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh831402.aspx#BKMK_1

QUESTION 35
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2008 R2. The domain contains a file server named Server6 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server6 contains a folder named Folder1. Folder1 is shared as Share1. The NTFS permissions on Folder1 are shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

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The domain contains two global groups named Group1 and Group2. You need to ensure that only users who are members of both Group1 and Group2 are denied access to Folder1. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    Remove the Deny permission for Group1 from Folder1.
B.    Deny Group2 permission to Folder1.
C.    Install a domain controller that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
D.    Create a conditional expression.
E.    Deny Group2 permission to Share1.
F.    Deny Group1 permission to Share1.

Answer: CD
Explanation:
* Conditional Expressions for Permission Entries Windows Server 2008 R2 and Windows 7 enhanced Windows security descriptors by introducing a conditional access permission entry. Windows Server 2012 R2 takes advantage of conditional access permission entries by inserting user claims, device claims, and resource properties, into conditional expressions. Windows Server 2012 R2 security evaluates these expressions and allows or denies access based on results of the evaluation. Securing access to resources through claims is known as claims-based access control. Claims-based access control works with traditional access control to provide an additional layer of authorization that is flexible to the varying needs of the enterprise environment.
http://social.technet.microsoft.com/wiki/contents/articles/14269.introducing-dynamicaccess- control-en-us.aspx

QUESTION 36
Your network contains an Active Directory forest. The forest contains a single domain named contoso.com. The forest contains two Active Directory sites named Main and Branch1. The sites connect to each other by using a site link named Main-Branch1. There are no other site links. Each site contains several domain controllers. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2. Your company plans to open a new branch site named Branch2. The new site will have a WAN link that connects to the Main site only. The site will contain two domain controllers that run Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to create a new site and a new site link for Branch2. The solution must ensure that the domain controllers in Branch2 only replicate to the domain controllers in Branch1 if all of the domain controllers in Main are unavailable. Which three actions should you perform? To answer, move the three appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

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Answer:

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QUESTION 37
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a domain controller named DC1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. DC1 has the DNS Server server role installed. The network contains client computers that run either Linux, Windows 7, or Windows 8. You have a standard primary zone named adatum.com as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

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You plan to configure Name Protection on all of the DHCP servers. You need to configure the adatum.com zone to support Name Protection. Which two configurations should you perform from DNS Manager? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    Sign the zone.
B.    Store the zone in Active Directory.
C.    Modify the Security settings of the zone.
D.    Configure Dynamic updates.

Answer: BD
Explanation:
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ee941152(v=ws.10).aspx

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QUESTION 38
Your network contains two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 and Server2 have the Hyper-V server role installed. Server1 and Server2 are configured as Hyper-V replicas of each other. Server1 hosts a virtual machine named VM1. VM1 is replicated to Server2. You need to verify whether the replica of VM1 on Server2 is functional. The solution must ensure that VM1 remains accessible to clients. What should you do from Hyper-V Manager?

A.    On Server1, execute a Planned Failover.
B.    On Server1, execute a Test Failover.
C.    On Server2, execute a Planned Failover.
D.    On Server2, execute a Test Failover.

Answer: D
Explanation:
A. Server 1 is houses VM1 and it is replicated to Server2 – wrong server to failover and this is not a planned fail over case
B. Wrong server correct failover type
C. Wrong server, wrong failover type
D. Right server and failover type
http://blogs.technet.com/b/virtualization/archive/2012/07/31/types-of-failover-operations-inhyper- v-replica-partii-planned-failover.aspx
http://blogs.technet.com/b/virtualization/archive/2012/07/26/types-of-failover-operations-inhyper- v-replica.aspx

QUESTION 39
You have a failover cluster named Cluster1 that contains four nodes. All of the nodes run Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to force every node in Cluster1 to contact immediately the Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) server on your network for updates. Which tool should you use?

A.    The Add-CauClusterRole cmdlet
B.    The Wuauclt command
C.    The Wusa command
D.    The Invoke-CauScan cmdlet

Answer: D
Explanation:
A. Adds the Cluster-Aware Updating (CAU) clustered role that provides the self-updating functionality to the specified cluster.
B. the wuauclt utility allows you some control over the functioning of the Windows Update Agent C. The Wusa.exe file is in the %windir%\System32 folder. The Windows Update Standalone Installer uses the Windows Update Agent API to install update packages. Update packages have an .msu file name extension. The .msu file name extension is associated with the Windows Update Standalone Installer.
D. Performs a scan of cluster nodes for applicable updates and returns a list of the initial set of updates that would be applied to each node in a specified cluster. http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh847235(v=wps.620).aspx http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc720477(v=ws.10).aspx http://support.microsoft.com/kb/934307
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh847228(v=wps.620).aspx

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QUESTION 40
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The network contains a file server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You are configuring a central access policy for temporary employees. You enable the Department resource property and assign the property a suggested value of Temp. You need to configure a target resource condition for the central access rule that is scoped to resources assigned to Temp only. Which condition should you use?

A.    (Temp.Resource Equals “Department”)
B.    (Resource.Temp Equals “Department”)
C.    (Resource.Department Equals “Temp”)
D.    (Department.Value Equals “Temp”)

Answer: C
Explanation:
http://technet.microsoft.com/fr-fr/library/hh846167.aspx

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