2014 Latest CompTIA CLO-001 Exam Dump Free Download!

QUESTION 1
Which of the following does IT outsourcing and cloud computing typically have in common?

A.    Pay as you go agreements
B.    Short-term financial commitment
C.    Tailor-made applications based on client needs
D.    Vendor lock-in potential

Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which of the following does the server virtualization layer do?

A.    It allows the underling physical server hardware to be shared
B.    It allows the virtual machines to be dependent on each other
C.    It allows the virtual machines to be load balanced
D.    It prohibits the use of virtual machines by unauthorized users

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which of the following are essential steps to take when creating a virtual server?

A.    Select a machine image to run, select an application set to run, select security credentials.
B.    Select a machine image to run, select an application set to run, select the size of the virtual machine.
C.    Select a machine image to run, select security credentials, select the size of the virtual machine.
D.    Select an application set to run, select security credentials, select the size of the virtual machine.

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which of the following technologies are related to Web services?

A.    HTML, IDM, JSON
B.    HTML, IDM, XML
C.    HTML, JSON, XML
D.    DM, JSON, XML

Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Web hosting is a service that enables customers to deploy a website quickly. This is an example
of:

A.    IaaS.
B.    SaaS
C.    PaaS.
D.    On-demand software.
E.    None of the above.

Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which of the following describes the amount of data that can be sent across a link in a given time?

A.    Network bandwidth
B.    Network QoS
C.    Network latency
D.    Network speed

Answer: A

QUESTION 7
How can the internal IT department successfully react to cloud computing?

A.    By becoming an external cloud provider
B.    By becoming an internal cloud provider
C.    By outsourcing all IT services
D.    By solely focusing on security issues

Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which of the following is a business reason for IT outsourcing and cloud computing?

A.    Improving cost structure
B.    Improving customer satisfaction
C.    Increasing control over IT systems
D.    Decrease of security issues

Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which of the following assets have risks related to a cloud provider going out of business?

A.    Data stored at the provider
B.    Cloud management tools housed at the provider
C.    Investment in servers at the provider
D.    Machine capacity at the provider

Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which of the following is included in a compliance audit?

A.    Analyzing chargeback agreements
B.    Analyzing cloud provider Service Level Agreements (SLAs)
C.    Analyzing identity management and access controls
D.    Analyzing the provider release calendar

Answer: C

QUESTION 11
How does cloud computing influence service operations?

A.    Cloud computing is more cost effective
B.    The provisioning of servers and services is quicker or ceases to be an issue
C.    The provisioning of servers and services can be much slower
D.    The security level will increase

Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Cloud computing brings new challenges to ___________ management, because traditional licensing models do not fit well with scalable resources.

A.    commercial
B.    financial
C.    legal
D.    service

Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which of the following is indicated by a high number of variations of different virtual servers?

A.    Lack of an automated provisioning process of the virtual machines
B.    Lack of automation of virtual machine image manufacturing
C.    Lack of manpower to monitor the virtual machines
D.    Lack of physical servers to accommodate the different virtual servers

Answer: B

QUESTION 14
Cloud computing is priced according to ___________ or has ___________, rather than having upfront costs.

A.    recurring subscription, a yearly contract
B.    a yearly contract, usage-based charges
C.    recurring subscription, usage-based charges
D.    number of users, a yearly contract

Answer: C
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QUESTION 1
At 10:35 a.m. a malicious user was able to obtain a valid authentication token which allowed read/write access to the backend database of a financial company. At 10:45 a.m. the security administrator received multiple alerts from the company’s statistical anomaly-based IDS about a company database administrator performing unusual transactions. At 10:55 a.m. the security administrator resets the database administrator’s password.
At 11:00 a.m. the security administrator is still receiving alerts from the IDS about unusual transactions from the same user. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause of the alerts?

A.    The IDS logs are compromised.
B.    The new password was compromised.
C.    An input validation error has occurred.
D.    A race condition has occurred.

Answer: D

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2014 Latest CompTIA 225-030 Exam Dump Free Download!

QUESTION 1
What items need to be evaluated when choosing a scanner?

A.    Documents, images, and storage medium
B.    Resolution, compression, and memory
C.    Workflow, ease of use, and productivity
D.    Interface, resolution, and paper handling

Answer: D

QUESTION 2
When designing the input environment for the proposed Document Management System (DMS), which of the following MUST be considered?

A.    Index fields
B.    Storage media
C.    Type of printers
D.    Postscript (PS)

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Company.com needs to deliver objects over the web and ensure that only the authorized user can view them even if disconnected from the system. What technology would apply?

A.    Storage management
B.    Digital Rights Management (DRM)
C.    Watermarking
D.    Web control management

Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Company.com would like to capture incoming invoices and process them through their Accounts Payable (AP) system. Which system would BEST accomplish this?

A.    Image enabled workflow oriented system
B.    SQL database system
C.    Intranet based form processing system
D.    Records management system

Answer: A

QUESTION 5
An accounting firm stores electronic images of its clients tax returns in the Electronic Document Management System (EDMS). The company should be MOST concerned with:

A.    document format.
B.    network security.
C.    application integration.
D.    network bandwidth.

Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Many of the documents to be scanned by Company.com are sales invoices with a yellow background. A feature of the proposed scanning solution should include:

A.    image enhancement.
B.    deskew.
C.    color dropout.
D.    color enhancement.

Answer: C

QUESTION 7
A potential risk to a project could be:

A.    regular Project Manager meetings.
B.    a risk analysis session.
C.    creating an assumptions document.
D.    allowing scope creep.

Answer: D

QUESTION 8
A client receives over 2,000 laser printed purchase orders daily from 1,188 customers. The scanning staff will scan, index, and perform quality assurance of the documents. Which of the following is the LEAST labor intensive method to perform indexing?

A.    ICR software
B.    Optical Mark Recognition (OMR) software
C.    OCR software
D.    Heads-down indexing

Answer: C

QUESTION 9
All of the following are routing features of production workflow EXCEPT:

A.    work monitoring.
B.    pending or holding items.
C.    support for multiple queues based on work type.
D.    sorting queues in date order.

Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which of the following are elements of a communication plan?

A.    All-hands meetings and intranet postings
B.    Ethernet and TCP / IP
C.    E-mail and FTP
D.    Project charter and project plan

Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Assuming an average image size of 105 KB, a 700 MB CD -R contains how many images?

A.    10,826
B.    7,580
C.    6,826
D.    15,020

Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which of the following is required as part of a records storage management solution?

A.    Full-text search and retrieval
B.    Boxes of paper
C.    Retention schedule
D.    Enterprise content management software

Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Company.com is generating 10,000 documents a month and is considering if they should goforward with an Electronic Document Management (EDM) solution or continue with the existing paper-based storage strategy. Considering the cost of both strategies the customer should:

A.    select the EDM solution because it is more expensive in the long term.
B.    select the EDM solution because it is more expensive but easier to implement and has greater
long term benefits.
C.    select the EDM solution because it is more expensive in the near term but becomes less expensive
in the long term.
D.    stay with the current solution because it is considerably less expensive in the long term.

Answer: C

QUESTION 14
A Request For Proposal (RFP) includes a workflow requirement for reassigning work. What feature ensures that work can be or has been reassigned?

A.    Error handling
B.    Scan-to-folder
C.    Records management
D.    Tracking capability

Answer: D

QUESTION 15
Company.com is performing incremental backups nightly. At the end of the month they review a list of documents that have reached their end of life and determine if they can be destroyed. Which of the following BEST describes the records storage management process?

A.    The customer has a document capture process.
B.    The customer does not have a records management process.
C.    The customer has a formal records storage management process.
D.    The customer has an informal records management process.

Answer: C
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QUESTION 1
An architectural review is BEST for finding which of the following security defects?

A.    Malware infection vectors
B.    SQL or other injection flaws
C.    Design flaws
D.    Zero-day vulnerabilities

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which of the following describes a security risk that may have to be accepted when using a commercial cross-platform mobile application framework?

A.    Allowing code to run outside the app sandbox
B.    Installing HTML 5 support on user device
C.    Digest authentication without HTTPS
D.    Using native code libraries without source code review

Answer: D

QUESTION 3
In an application architecture diagram, what categories of weaknesses are considered using Microsoft’s threat modeling process?

A.    Man-in-the-middle, Data injection, SQL Injection, Malware, Zero-day exploits
B.    Damage, Reproducibility, Exploitability, Affected users, Discoverability
C.    Spoofing, Tampering, Repudiation, Information disclosure, Denial of service, Elevation of privilege
D.    Cross site scripting, Clickjacking, Data input validation, SSL, RSA security, Buffer overflow, Heap smashing, ARP injection

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Android’s kernel-level app sandbox provides security by:

A.    assigning a unique user ID (UID) to each app and running in a separate process.
B.    running all apps under an unprivileged group ID (GID).
C.    restricting read access to an app’s package to the kernel process.
D.    preventing an app’s data files from being read by any running process.

Answer: A

QUESTION 5
The digital certificate used to sign the production release should be:

A.    regenerated for each version of the app.
B.    stored inside the app package before deployment.
C.    stored in a secure location separate from the passphrase.
D.    stored with the source code so all developers can build the app.

Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which statement about native code in apps is TRUE?

A.    Native code is faster because it runs as a separate user ID (UID) giving it direct access to restricted APIs.
B.    Native code is run under the same user ID (UID) as the Java app and therefore comes under the same sandbox restrictions.
C.    Native code is executed by the kernel with increased privileges and is mainly used for root operations.
D.    Native code runs outside the Dalvik VM and therefore is not restricted by the sandbox.

Answer: B

QUESTION 7
When an app creates a configuration file in its private data directory the developer should ensure:

A.    that the file path is determined with getExternalStorageDirectory().
B.    that the file is created world writable.
C.    that file ownership is set to system.
D.    that the file is not created world readable.

Answer: D

QUESTION 8
An example of APIs protected by permissions would bE. (Select TWO).

A.    SIM card access
B.    Telephony functions
C.    File handling functions
D.    Encryption functions
E.    Network/data connections

Answer: BE

QUESTION 9
An app accessing protected APIs should use which manifest declaration?

A.    app-permissions
B.    add-permissions
C.    grant-permission
D.    uses-permission

Answer: D

QUESTION 10
The MOST likely reason the developer might want to define their own permission in the manifest is because:

A.    they wish to ensure that only their app has the permission to launch their activities or access their private data.
B.    they wish to prevent the user from granting access to protected functionality by mistake.
C.    they wish to define a permission to access system APIs and native libraries.
D.    they wish to restrict access to a function in their app to only those apps which are specifically granted access by the user.

Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Valid permission protection levels are. (Select TWO).

A.    private
B.    signature
C.    user
D.    public
E.    dangerous

Answer: BE

QUESTION 12
The checkCallingPermission() method is used when:

A.    the app needs to determine what permission is required for it to make a call.
B.    the app needs to determine if it should allow an incoming call from another app.
C.    the app needs to determine whether it has permission to make a call.
D.    the app needs to determine what permissions are required to call a specific API.

Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which of the following is a more secure way for a developer to give 3rd party apps temporary access to resources in their app, such as opening attachments in an external editor?

A.    Make use of grantTempAccess()
B.    Make use of per-URI permissions
C.    Temporarily make files world readable
D.    Temporarily store files on SD Card

Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
A technician installs an additional hard drive controller. Which of the following processes will MOST likely prevent errors?

A.    1) Apply System Updates
2) Update the BIOS
3) Install the card
4) Install the driver
5) Upgrade the Card Firmware
B.    1) Install the card
2) Update the BIOS
3) Upgrade the Card Firmware
4) Install the driver
5) Apply System Updates
C.    1) Apply System Updates
2) Install the driver
3) Install the card
4) Upgrade the Card Firmware
5) Update the BIOS
D.    1) Update the BIOS
2) Install the driver
3) Install the card
4) Upgrade the Card Firmware
5) Apply System Updates

Answer: A

QUESTION 2
What is the MINIMUM Windows Experience Index recommended for using Aero enhancements in Windows 7?

A.    2.0
B.    3.0
C.    4.0
D.    5.0

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
On a Windows XP machine, which of the following settings should be configured to allow dragging of files without holding the mouse button?

A.    ScrollLock
B.    StickyKeys
C.    MouseKeys
D.    ClickLock

Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which of the following utilities would be used to configure energy saving measures when a laptop switches to battery power?

A.    MSTSC
B.    ACPI
C.    GDI
D.    MSCONFIG

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
A user states that they unplugged their mouse to clean the roller ball, but after plugging it back in the mouse no longer functions. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this issue?

A.    The mouse has a PS/2 connector which is not hot-swappable.
B.    The mouse roller ball is now too smooth to gain traction.
C.    The mouse was broken before the user unplugged to clean it.
D.    The mouse has a USB connector that is not getting enough power.

Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which of the following features are available in Windows 7 Professional beyond those available in Windows 7 Home Premium?

A.    HomeGroup
B.    Windows XP Mode
C.    Aero Desktop
D.    Internet Explorer 8

Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Traffic coming across port 443 is for which of the following protocols?

A.    SFTP
B.    FTP
C.    HTTP
D.    HTTPS

Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which of the following security threats are MOST likely prevented through user training?

A.    Network Intrusion
B.    Adware Popups
C.    Social Engineering
D.    Spam Messages

Answer: C

QUESTION 9
A user states that whenever they try to launch a certain installed application, they hear unusual whirring/clicking sounds from their machine and the application never loads. Which of the following components would a technician MOST likely need to replace?

A.    Hard Disk Drive
B.    Optical Drive
C.    Power Supply Unit
D.    Case Fan

Answer: A

QUESTION 10
A user states that they are trying to project their laptop to a screen for a presentation. They have plugged the projector cable into their laptop, and turned the projector on, but no signal is found. Which of the following should the technician perform FIRST?

A.    Ensure the projector is receiving power
B.    Verify the laptop is not running on battery
C.    Toggle the function key for displays
D.    Replace the projector cable with another

Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Which of the following are supported bus widths for a PCIe bus slot? (Select TWO).

A.    1x
B.    3x
C.    6x
D.    16x
E.    24x

Answer: AD

QUESTION 12
Which of the following BEST describes the function of hyperthreading support within a CPU?

A.    Allows the core to create a separate space to process threads
B.    Allows the processor to handle multiple threads per core
C.    Allows the core to shift to a higher clock speed based on thread count
D.    Allows the processor to reject certain threads to increase performance

Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which of the following is the MOST likely default configuration for a serial port?

A.    8 Data bits, Odd Parity, 1 stop bit
B.    8 Data bits, Even Parity, 2 stop bits
C.    8 Data bits, No Parity, 1.5 Stop bits
D.    8 Data bits, No Parity, 1 Stop bit

Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Which of the following are impact printers? (Select TWO).

A.    Line printer
B.    Dot matrix printer
C.    Thermal transfer printer
D.    Inkjet printer
E.    Xerographic printer

Answer: AB

QUESTION 15
After creating backups of critical system and user data, which of the following is the BEST location to store the backups?

A.    In the supply closet so anyone can access them if needed
B.    Near the server for easy access to restore files
C.    Locked in a cabinet in the IT Manager’s office
D.    At a secure off-site storage facility

Answer: D
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QUESTION 1
You need to generate a report on all of the Exchange Server 2007 computers in your Exchange organization. The report must include:
– Operating system versionNumber of processors
– Total physical memory
– Number of storage groups
– Number of mailbox databases
What should you do?

A.    Run the Get-ExchangeServer | Format-List cmdlet.
B.    Run the Get-OrganizationConfig cmdlet.
C.    Run the Test-SystemHealth cmdlet.
D.    Run the Health Check scan in the Exchange Best Practices Analyzer.

Answer: D

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2014 Latest CompTIA LX0-102 Exam Demo Free Download!

QUESTION 1
When attempting to send a file to another user securely with GPG, which of the following actions must be done?

A.    Encrypt the file using your public key.
B.    Encrypt the file using their public key.
C.    Encrypt the file using your private key.
D.    Encrypt the file using their private key.
E.    Sign the file with your public key.

Answer: B

QUESTION 2
In xorg.conf, which of the following sections is concerned with fonts?

A.    The Fonts section
B.    The Files section
C.    The xfsCodes section
D.    The Graphics section
E.    The modeline section

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which of the following outputs will the below command sequence produce? echo ‘1 2 3 4 5 6’ | while read a b c; do echo result: $c $b $a; done

A.    result: 3 4 5 6 2 1
B.    result: 1 2 3 4 5 6
C.    result: 6 5 4
D.    result: 6 5 4 3 2 1
E.    result: 3 2 1

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
X is running okay but an administrator is concerned that the correct color depth set is not configured. Which of the following commands will show the administrator the running color depth while in X?

A.    xcd
B.    xcdepth
C.    xwininfo
D.    xcolordepth
E.    cat /etc/X11

Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which of the following words is used to restrict the records that are returned from a SELECT query based on supplied criteria for the values in the records?

A.    LIMIT
B.    FROM
C.    WHERE
D.    IF

Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which of the following outputs will the command seq 10 produce?

A.    A continuous stream of numbers increasing in increments of 10 until stopped.
B.    The numbers 1 through 10 with one number per line.
C.    The numbers 0 though 9 with one number per line.
D.    The number 10 to standard output.

Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which of the following is the purpose of the Sticky Keys feature in X?

A.    To assist users who have difficulty holding down multiple keys at once
B.    To prevent repeated input of a single character if the key is held down
C.    To ignore brief keystrokes according to a specified time limit
D.    To repeat the input of a single character

Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which of the following commands can be used to activate a specific network interface?

A.    ipup
B.    net
C.    ifup
D.    netup

Answer: C

QUESTION 9
An administrator is looking into a new script that they have just received from a senior administrator. In the very first line the administrator notices a #! followed by a path to a binary.
Linux will:

A.    ignore the script.
B.    use that binary to interpret the script.
C.    use that binary to compile the script.
D.    be replaced by that binary.

Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which of the following commands should be used to print a listing of emails in the system’s mail queue?

A.    sendmail -l
B.    lpq
C.    mailq
D.    mlq

Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Each entry in a crontab must end with which of the following characters?

A.    tab
B.    space
C.    backslash
D.    newline

Answer: D

QUESTION 12
A department decided to change the Gnome Display Manager’s greeting. Which of the following configuration files should an administrator edit?

A.    /etc/gnome/greeting
B.    /opt/gnome/share/greeting
C.    /etc/X11/gmd.conf
D.    /etc/X11/gdm/Init/Default

Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Which of the following are commonly used Mail Transfer Agent (MTA) applications? (Select THREE).

A.    postfix
B.    procmail
C.    sendmail
D.    exim
E.    smtpd

Answer: ACD

QUESTION 14
On a dual boot system, every time the system is booted back into Linux the time has been set backward by two hours. Which of the following commands will correct the problem so it will not occur again?

A.    ntpdate pool.ntp.org
B.    date -d ‘two hours’
C.    hwclock –hctosys –localtime
D.    time hwclock

Answer: C

QUESTION 15
Which of the following files, when using Sendmail or a similar MTA system, will allow a user to redirect all their mail to another address and is configurable by the user themselves?

A.    /etc/alias
B.    /etc/mail/forwarders
C.    ~/.alias
D.    ~/.forward

Answer: D
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QUESTION 1
An administrator is attempting to recover corrupted data from a four disk RAID group. However, the administrator does not know which RAID level was used. When investigating the volumes, the administrator notes that there is a duplicate of all data on two of the disks. Which of the following RAID levels was in use?

A.    RAID 0
B.    RAID 5
C.    RAID 6
D.    RAID 10

Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Given an array with sixteen 300GB drives, a storage administrator needs to know how much raw usable space can be made available while still maintaining a highly available RAID configuration with two hot spares. Which of the following is the MAXIMUM capacity that can be allocated and at which RAID level?

A.    2.1TB, RAID 1
B.    3.6TB, RAID 6
C.    3.9TB, RAID 5
D.    4.8TB, RAID 0

Answer: C

QUESTION 3
When gathering simple baseline statistics for a storage array, a storage administrator should gather which of the following? (Select TWO).

A.    Read/Write errors
B.    Number of switches connected
C.    Reads/Writes performed
D.    Read/Write throughput
E.    Port loss of signal counts

Answer: CD

QUESTION 4
A server has dual power supplies, dual mirrored hard drives, multi-pathed multiple NICs, and a dual port HBA for access into a SAN. Which of the following components is a single point of failure?

A.    Power supplies
B.    HBA
C.    NICs
D.    System hard drives

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
A new storage array is being cabled into a rack. The array has dual controllers, each disk tray has dual power supplies, and there are two in-rack PDUs (C and D). Which of the following is the BEST method for hooking up power?

A.    Connect controller A’s PSUs to PDU C, controller B’s PSUs to D, alternate drive trays between PDUs C and D.
B.    Connect all drive tray PSUs to C and all controller PDUs to D.
C.    Connect both controller’s PSUs to C and all drive tray PSUs to D.
D.    Split all PSU connections between C and D equally.

Answer: D

QUESTION 6
An administrator needs to assign LUN IDs for two new LUNs from the same storage array. The
first LUN is being presented as LUN 0 to multiple hosts. The second LUN is being dedicated to a single server which is also included in the group of hosts LUN 0 is presented to. Which of the following is the LOWEST LUN ID that can be assigned to the second LUN?

A.    0
B.    1
C.    2
D.    16

Answer: B

QUESTION 7
In a direct current only datacenter, which of the following is the MOST important rack installation concern?

A.    Sufficient power capacity
B.    Adequate division of circuits
C.    Adequate humidity control
D.    Grounding of all components

Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which of the following are the MOST important properties to remember when replacing a faulty SFP? (Select TWO).

A.    SFP TX power
B.    Distance rating
C.    Port speed
D.    SFP RX power
E.    Driver version

Answer: BC

QUESTION 9
Which of the following is the MOST important item a storage administrator should check FIRST for a successful fabric merge?

A.    Faulty SFPs in the switch
B.    Number of aliases in the zoning database
C.    Domain IDs
D.    Total number of ports in the combined fabric

Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which of the following protocols transmits a password in clear text on the network during the login process?

A.    SFTP
B.    SSH
C.    Telnet
D.    HTTPS

Answer: C

QUESTION 11
A switch with 8Gb ports has been connected with five hosts running at 4Gb speed and two at 2Gb speed. If the switch is communicating through an ISL with another 8Gb switch where the storage array is connected, which of the following will be the oversubscription ratio of this configuration?

A.    1:1
B.    2:1
C.    3:1
D.    5:1

Answer: C

QUESTION 12
An administrator is tasked to programmatically create twenty 64GB LUNs and one 1GB LUN to be assigned to a four node cluster. Which of the following tools should be used to satisfy the request?

A.    CLI
B.    SMI-S
C.    GUI
D.    SNMP

Answer: A

QUESTION 13
A senior administrator configuring a firewall would like to know the IP address of a frequently accessed website to verify that site was not accidentally blocked in the content filter by the junior administrator’s recently-added range of blocked IP addresses. Which of the following tools would be used to find the IP address of the website?

A.    ipconfig/ifconfig
B.    nslookup
C.    netstat
D.    tracert/traceroute

Answer: B

QUESTION 14
A user reports lack of network connectivity on a laptop. No hardware changes have recently occurred on the laptop. Which of the following should the technician check FIRST?

A.    Port
B.    Cable
C.    Firewall
D.    NIC configuration

Answer: B

QUESTION 15
A small business would like to install their new storage equipment in a closet off of their pool deck. Which of the following environmental concerns should a technician consider FIRST?

A.    Fire suppression
B.    Humidity control
C.    Sufficient power
D.    Rack loading

Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Which of the following RAID levels provides the BEST guarantee that data will be retained in the event of drive failure without requiring a rebuild?

A.    RAID 0
B.    RAID 1
C.    RAID 3
D.    RAID 5

Answer: B
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QUESTION 1
A user has a perimeter firewall and up-to-date antivirus software. The user is asking what else they can do to improve their security. Which of the following will have the MOST impact on network security? (Select TWO).

A.    Install additional antivirus software
B.    Disable screen savers
C.    Conduct a daily security audit
D.    Assign security rights based on job roles
E.    Use strong passwords

Answer: DE
Explanation:
To improve security, assign security rights based on job roles. You need to give least amount of privilege to users so that they can do their jobs without having access to resources that have nothing to do with their job roles.

QUESTION 2
Drag and Drop Questions
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Answer:
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QUESTION 3
A technician is trying to prevent a local application from reaching the web due to security concerns. Which of the following solutions could BEST prevent the application from reaching the web? (Select TWO).

A.    Configure the workstation for a static IP
B.    Disable all wireless network connections
C.    Remove shortcuts to the application
D.    Block the application in Windows Firewall
E.    Change network location to Work
F.    Reroute the web address in HOSTS file

Answer: DF
Explanation:
Use Windows firewall to restrict an application from reaching the web. Alternatively you can also reroute the web address in the HOST file.

QUESTION 4
A user has downloaded and installed a browser add-on that causes the browser to hang. The PC has very slow system response when rebooted. Which of the following should a technician do to troubleshoot this problem?

A.    Run System Restore, update antivirus program, and run an antivirus scan.
B.    Remove all Internet temporary files, run an antivirus scan, and reboot using Last Known Good Configuration.
C.    Remove all temporary files, turn off System Restore, update and run an antivirus scan.
D.    Run an antivirus scan, Run Disk Cleanup, and reboot into Safe Mode.

Answer: C
Explanation:
This might be the sign of a virus infecting the system. First, remove all temporary Internet files on your computer. Viruses are downloaded through software or a webpage. And normally it resides in Temporary Internet Files folder. Now turn off system restore because you don’t want to load a previous state on the computer with the virus still lingering the digital wild. Run an antivirus program to clean infected files.

QUESTION 5
– Email address [email protected] com
– Password [email protected]
– Pop techies com Port 110 Security. None
– IMAP techies com Port 993 Security SSL
– smtp.techies.com Port 465 Security: TLS
– Company SSID Techies
– Security WPA2
– Passphrase [email protected]
– SSID is not broadcasted
Instructions: You are not authorized to use the Company’s WLAN The outgoing server does not require login credentials When you have completed the simulation, please select the done button to submit your answer.
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Answer: See Answer from Full Version
QUESTION 6
Which of the following steps would allow display output from a laptop to an external display? (Select TWO).

A.    Press the appropriate Function Key combination
B.    A second video card in the Express card slot
C.    Disconnect the integrated display
D.    Enabling second monitor in the Windows Display Settings
E.    Loading external monitor drivers on the laptop

Answer: AD
Explanation:
First enable second monitor in Windows Display settings. After that press the function key along with the assigned key to display the output on an external monitor.

QUESTION 7
When setting up a new wireless router, which of the following actions should the technician take FIRST in order to secure the network? (Select TWO).

A.    Disable unused ports
B.    Change the SSID
C.    Position the antennas to prevent outside access
D.    Enable MAC filtering
E.    Change the default user name

Answer: BE
Explanation:
The basic tasks to secure a network is to change SSID and the default user name. This is the basic security a user can employ to secure the network immediately.

QUESTION 8
For which of the following instances is System Restore MOST likely to be used?

A.    Deleting temporary files that are not needed.
B.    Replacing a failed hard drive with a new drive.
C.    Placing the system configuration into a prior state.
D.    Downgrading an operating system to another version.

Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Administrative share names are MOST commonly designated by which of the following symbols?

A.    !
B.    $
C.    :
D.    *

Answer: B

QUESTION 10
After loading a new operating system, which of the following accounts is MOST often changed for security purposes?

A.    Standard User
B.    Power User
C.    Guest
D.    System

Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Virtual machines help users developing cloud applications in which of the following ways?

A.    Provides an environment where the host cannot be connected to the network.
B.    Provides a platform where operating system requirements are lessened.
C.    Provides a safe, secure environment in which to test patches or application updates.
D.    Provides an environment that is never accessible from the Internet.

Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which of the following installation types uses an answer file as part of the installation process?

A.    Unattended installation
B.    Clean installation
C.    Virtual desktop image deployment
D.    Remote network installation

Answer: A

QUESTION 13
An administrator sets up a wireless device that they will need to manage across the Internet. Which of the following security measures would BEST prevent unauthorized access to the device from the Internet?

A.    Set the channels to wireless 802.11n only
B.    Change the default username and password
C.    Enable the wireless AP’s MAC filtering
D.    Enable the wireless AP’s WPA2 security

Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
New Simulation: Crimp out a T568B.
Answer:
White/Orange, Orange, White/Green, Blue, White/Blue, Green, White/Brown, Brown.
Explanation:
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QUESTION 2
A firewall that detects and prevents attacks from outside the network based on learned data patterns can BEST be described as which of the following?

A.    Signature based IDS
B.    Behavior based IPS
C.    Host based IPS
D.    Network based IDS

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which of the following technologies prevents network collisions to maximize safe delivery of network data?

A.    CSMA/CA
B.    DWDM
C.    RADIUS
D.    SONET

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which of the following are authentication methods that can use AAA authentication? (Select TWO).

A.    Kerberos
B.    PKI
C.    TKIP/AES
D.    MS-CHAP
E.    RADIUS
F.    TACACS+

Answer: EF

QUESTION 5
Drag and Drop Question
Drag and drop the fiber cable connection types to the appropriate image.
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Answer:
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QUESTION 6
A company is connected to an ISP, but owns the premise router with an internal CSU/DSU. Which of the following is considered the demarc?

A.    Premise router
B.    ISP router
C.    Smart jack
D.    CSU/DSU

Answer: C

QUESTION 7
An IP camera has a failed PoE NIC. This is the third time in months that a PoE NIC has failed on
this device. The technician suspects a possible power issue. Which of the following should be used to test the theory?

A.    Toner probe
B.    Loopback plug
C.    Protocol analyzer
D.    Multimeter

Answer: D

QUESTION 8
A technician is troubleshooting a network issue and needs to view network traffic on a switch in real-time. Which of the following would allow the technician to view network traffic on a switch?

A.    ISAKMP
B.    Port forwarding
C.    Port security
D.    Port mirroring

Answer: D

QUESTION 9
A technician finds that the network card is no longer functioning. At which of the following OSI layers is the problem occurring?

A.    Layer 1
B.    Layer 3
C.    Layer 5
D.    Layer 7

Answer: A

QUESTION 10
The address 6FFE:FFFF:0000:2F3B:04AC:00FF:FEBE:5C4A is an example of which of the following?

A.    APIPA
B.    MAC
C.    IPv4
D.    IPv6

Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Which of the following properties of DHCP would a technician use to ensure an IP address is not leased out from the active scope?

A.    Reservations
B.    Lease times
C.    Removing IPs from the active leases
D.    Configuring the DNS options

Answer: A
Explanation:
Reservationsare permanent lease assignments that are used to ensure that a specified client on a subnet can always use the same IP address. You can use DHCP reservations for hosts that require a consistent IP address, but do not need to be statically configured.

QUESTION 12
A network technician needs to configure a port on a switch to provide connectivity and electrical support to a WAP being installed in a warehouse. Which of the following features needs to be configured on the switch?

A.    STP
B.    PoE
C.    VTP trunking
D.    Port forwarding

Answer: B
Explanation:
Power over Ethernet or PoE describes any of several standardized or ad-hoc systems which pass electrical power along with data on Ethernet cabling. This allows a single cable to provide both data connection and electrical power to devices such as wireless access points or IP cameras.

QUESTION 13
Which of the following reasons would MOST likely be used to implement QoS and traffic shaping solutions?

A.    Redundancy
B.    Fault tolerance
C.    Unified communications
D.    Uptime requirements

Answer: C
Explanation:
In unified communication video,voice,data have only one end gateway so to give priority to avoid delay in voice and video we use Qos.

QUESTION 14
Which of the following uses SSL encryption?

A.    SMTP
B.    FTP
C.    HTTPS
D.    SNMP

Answer: C
Explanation:
HTTPSis the result of simply layering the Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) on top of the SSL/TLS protocol, thus adding the security capabilities of SSL/TLS to standard HTTP communications.

QUESTION 15
A network administrator wants to balance the amount of data between two networking cards. Which of the following can be used for two or more networking cards?

A.    NIC bonding
B.    Proxy server
C.    Firewall ACLs
D.    VLANs

Answer: A
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