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QUESTION 1890
The PRIMARY advantage of single sign-on (SSO) is that it will:

A. increase the security of related applications.
B. support multiple authentication mechanisms.
C. increase efficiency of access management.
D. strengthen user passwords.

Answer: C

QUESTION 1891
Which of the following would provide the MOST useful information when prioritizing controls to be added to a system?

A. Baseline to industry standards
B. The risk register
C. Balanced scorecard
D. Compliance requirements

Answer: B

QUESTION 1892
An organization has recently acquired a smaller company located in a different geographic region.
Which of the following is the BEST approach for addressing conflicts between the parent organization’s security standards and local regulations affecting the acquired company?

A. Adopt the standards of the newly acquired company.
B. Give precedence to the parent organization’s standards.
C. Create a global version of the local regulations,
D. Create a local version of the parent organization’s standards.

Answer: B

QUESTION 1893
An organization has decided to outsource its disaster recovery function. Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when drafting the service level agreement (SLA)?

A. Recovery time objectives (RTOs)
B. Testing requirements
C. Recovery point objectives (RPOs)
D. Authorization chain

Answer: B

QUESTION 1894
Which of the following MOST effectively allows for disaster recovery testing without interrupting business operations?

A. Full interruption testing
B. Simulation testing
C. Parallel testing
D. Structured walk-through

Answer: A

QUESTION 1895
When defining and communicating roles and responsibilities between an organization and cloud service provider, which of the following situations would present the GREATEST risk to the organization’s ability to ensure information risk is managed appropriately?

A. The Service agreement results in unnecessary duplication of effort because shared responsibilities have not been clearly defined.
B. The organization and provider identified multiple information security responsibilities that neither party was planning to provide.
C. The service agreement uses a custom-developed RACI instead of an industry standard RACI to document responsibilities.
D. The organization believes the provider accepted responsibility for issues affecting security that the provider did not accept.

Answer: D

QUESTION 1896
An organization has implemented a new security control in response to a recently discovered vulnerability. Several employees have voiced concerns that the control disrupts their ability to work. Which of the following is the information security manager’s BEST course of action?

A. Educate users about the vulnerability.
B. Report the control risk to senior management.
C. Accept the vulnerability.
D. Evaluate compensating control options.

Answer: D

QUESTION 1897
An incident response team recently encountered an unfamiliar type of cyber event. Though the team was able to resalve the issue, it took a significant amount of time to identify, What is the BEST way to help ensure similar incidents are identified more quickly in the future?

A. Implement a SIEM solution.
B. Perform a post-incident review.
C. Perform a threat analysis.
D. Establish performance metrics for the team.

Answer: B

QUESTION 1898
An organization’s ClO has tasked the information security manager with drafting the charter for an information security steering committee. The committee will be comprised of the C/O, the IT shared services manager, the vice president of marketing, and the information security manager. Which of the following is the MOST significant issue with the development of this committee?

A. The CIO is not taking charge of the committee.
B. There is a conflict of interest between the business and IT.
C. The committee lacks sufficient business representation.
D. The committee consists of too many senior executives.

Answer: C

QUESTION 1899
Which of the following is MOST important to ensure when considering exceptions to an information security policy?

A. Exceptions are based on data classification.
B. Exceptions undergo regular review.
C. Exceptions reflect the organizational risk appetite.
D. Exceptions are approved by executive management.

Answer: C

QUESTION 1900
Which of the following would be MOST useful in determining how an organization will be affected by a new regulatory requirement for cloud services?

A. Risk assessment
B. Data classification policy
C. Information asset inventory
D. Data loss protection plan

Answer: A

QUESTION 1901
Which of the following is an information security manager’s BEST course of action upon discovering an organization with budget constraints lacks several important security capabilities?

A. Suggest the deployment of open-source security tools to mitigate identified risks.
B. Recommend that the organization avoid the most severe risks.
C. Establish a business case to demonstrate return on investment (ROI) of a security tool.
D. Review the most recent audit report and request funding to address the most serious finding.

Answer: C

QUESTION 1902
Which of the following is the BEST way to strengthen the alignment of an information security program with business strategy?

A. Providing organizational training on information security policies
B. Increasing budget for risk assessments
C. Increasing the frequency of control assessments
D. Establishing an information security steering committee

Answer: D

QUESTION 1903
Which of the following is the PRIMARY responsibility of an information security governance committee?

A. Approving changes to the information security strategy
B. Discussing upcoming information security projects
C. Reviewing monthly information security metrics
D. Reviewing the information security risk register

Answer: A

QUESTION 1904
An organization has established a bring your own device (BYOD) program. Which of the following is the MOST important security consideration when allowing employees to use personal devices for corporate applications remotely?

A. Security awareness training
B. Secure application development
C. Mobile operating systems support
D. Mandatory controls for maintaining security policy

Answer: A

QUESTION 1905
An organization is developing a disaster recovery strategy and needs to identify each application’s criticality so that the recovery sequence can be established. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

A. Document the data flow and review the dependencies.
B. Perform a business impact analysis (BIA) on each application.
C. Restore the applications with the shortest recovery times first.
D. Identify which applications contribute the most cash flow.

Answer: B

QUESTION 1906
an information security manager has identified a major security event with potential noncompliance implications. Who should be notified FIRST?

A. Internal audit
B. Senior management
C. Public relations team
D. Regulatory authorities

Answer: B

QUESTION 1907
Which of the following should be the PRIMARY focus of a status report on the information security program to senior management?

A. Demonstrating risk is managed at the desired level
B. Confirming the organization complies with security policies
C. Providing evidence that resources are performing as expected
D. Verifying security costs do not exceed the budget

Answer: A

QUESTION 1908
To address the issue that performance pressures on IT may conflict with information security controls, itis MOST important that:

A. the Steering committee provides guidance and dispute resolution.
B. noncompliance issues are reported to senior management.
C. IT policies and procedures are better aligned to security policies.
D. the security policy is changed to accommodate IT performance pressure.

Answer: A

QUESTION 1909
Which of the following would BEST help an organization’s ability to manage advanced persistent threats (APT)?

A. Using multiple security vendors
B. Having a skilled information security team
C. Having network detection tools in place
D. Increasing the information security budget

Answer: C

QUESTION 1910
Priore implementing a bring your own device (BYOD) program, it is MOST important to:

A. select mobile device management (MDM) software.
B. survey employees for requested applications.
C. review currently utilized applications.
D. develop an acceptable use policy.

Answer: D

QUESTION 1911
In an organization that has several independent security tools including intrusion detection systems (IDSs) and firewalls, which of the following is the BEST way to ensure timely detection of incidents?

A. Ensure staff are cross trained to manage all security tools.
B. Ensure that the incident response plan is endorsed by senior management.
C. Outsource the management of security tools to a service provider.
D. Implement a log aggregation and correlation solution.

Answer: D

QUESTION 1912
Which of the following is the PRIMARY responsibility of an information security steering committee?

A. Revigwing firewall rules
B. Setting up password expiration procedures
C. Prioritizing security initiatives
D. Drafting security policies

Answer: C

QUESTION 1913
Which of the following would be MOST helpful when determining appropriate access controls for an application?

A. End-user input
B. Industry best practices
C. Data criticality
D. Gap analysis results

Answer: C

QUESTION 1914
Which of the following provides the MOST relevant information to determine the overall effectiveness of an information security program and underlying business processes?

A. SWOT analysis
B. Balanced scorecard
C. Cost-benefit analysis
D. Industry benchmarks

Answer: B

QUESTION 1915
What should be an information security manager’s MOST important consideration when reviewing a proposed upgrade to a business unit’s production database?

A. Ensuring residual risk is within apbetite
B. Ensuring the application inventory is updated
C. Ensuring a cost-benefit analysis is completed
D. Ensuring senior management is aware of associated risk

Answer: A

QUESTION 1916
Which of the following metrics provides the BEST measurement of the effectiveness of a security awareness program?

A. Mean time between incident detection and remediation
B. Variance of program cost to allocated budget
C. The number of reported security incidents
D. The number of security breaches

Answer: A

QUESTION 1917
Which of the following is an information security manager’s FIRST priority after a high-profile system has been compromised?

A. Implement improvements to prevent recurrence.
B. Identify the malware that compromised the system.
C. Preserve incident-related data.
D. Restore the compromised system.

Answer: D

QUESTION 1918
Which of the following should an information security manager do FIRST to address complaints that a newly implemented security control has slowed business operations?

A. Discuss the issue with senior management for direction.
B. Validate whether the control is operating as intended.
C. Remove the control and identify alternatives.
D. Conduct user awareness training.

Answer: B

QUESTION 1919
An information security manager was informed that a planned penetration test could potentially disrupt some services.
Which of the following should be the FIRST course of action?

A. Ensure the service owner is available during the penetration test.
B. Accept the risk and document it in the risk register.
C. Estimate the impact and inform the business owner.
D. Reschedule the activity during an approved maintenance window.

Answer: C

QUESTION 1920
What is the PRIMARY objective of implementing standard security configurations?

A. Maintain a flexible approach to mitigate potential risk to unsupported systems.
B. Compare configurations between supported and unsupported systems.
C. Minimize the operational burden of managing and monitoring unsupported systems.
D. Control vulnerabilities and reduce threats from changed configurations.

Answer: D

QUESTION 1921
In addition to executive sponsorship and business alignment, which of the following is MOST critical for information security governance?

A. Allocation of training resources
B. Compliance with policies
C. Auditability of systems
D. Ownership of security

Answer: D

QUESTION 1922
When developing an incident escalation process, the BEST approach is to classify incidents based on:

A. estimated time to recover.
B. information assets affected.
C. their root causes.
D. recovery point objectives (RPOs).

Answer: D

QUESTION 1923
An employee clicked on a link in a phishing email, triggering a ransomware attack. Which of the following should be the information security manager’s FIRST step?

A. Wipe the affected system.
B. lsolate the impacted endpoints.
C. Notify senior management
D. Notify internal legal counsel.

Answer: B

QUESTION 1924
The PRIMARY purpose for defining key risk indicators (KRIs) for a security program is to:

A. ensure mitigating controls meet specifications.
B. provide information needed to take action.
C. support investments in the security program.
D. compare security program effectiveness to benchmarks.

Answer: A

QUESTION 1925
An information security manager is preparing incident response plans for an organization that processes personal and financial information. Which of the Following is the MOST important consideration?

A. Identifying regulatory requirements
B. Determining budgetary constraints.
C. Aligning with enterprise architecture (EA)
D. Aligning with an established industry framework

Answer: A

QUESTION 1926
To implement effective continuous monitoring of IT controls, an information security manager needs to FIRST ensure:

A. security alerts are centralized.
B. periodic scanning of IT systems is in place.
C. metrics are communicated to senior management.
D. information assets have been classified.

Answer: C

QUESTION 1927
Which of the following is MOST likely to be included in an enterprise security policy?

A. Retention schedules
B. Organizational risk
C. System access specifications
D. Definitions of responsibilities

Answer: D

QUESTION 1928
Which of the following is the BEST way to build a risk-aware culture?

A. Periodically test compliance with security controls and post results.
B. Periodically change risk awareness messages.
C. Ensure that threats are communicated organization-wide in a timely manner.
D. Establish incentives and a channel for staff to report risks.

Answer: A


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QUESTION 150
Hotspot Question
You have an on-premises SAP landscape and an Azure subscription that contains a virtual network named VNET1. VNET1 has the following settings.

You plan to migrate the landscape to Azure.
You need to configure VNET1 to support the SAP landscape.
Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information presented in the settings.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Answer:

Explanation:
Box 1: add a virtual network gateway
Box 2: use remote gateways
Each virtual network, regardless of whether peered with another virtual network, can still have its own gateway to connect to an on-premises network. When you peer virtual networks, you can also configure the gateway in the peered virtual network as a transit point to an on-premises network. In this case, the virtual network that uses a remote gateway cannot have its own gateway. A virtual network can have only one gateway that can be either a local or remote gateway (in the peered virtual network).
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QUESTION 177
An administrator is configuring a new profiling policy within Cisco ISE. The organization has several endpoints that are the same device type and all have the same Block ID in their MAC address. The profiler does not currently have a profiling policy created to categorize these endpoints, therefore a custom profiling policy must be created.
Which condition must the administrator use in order to properly profile an ACME Al Connector endpoint for network access with MAC address <MAC ADDRESS>?

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B.    CDP_cdpCacheDevicelD_CONTAINS_<MACADDRESS>
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QUESTION 309
Refer to the exhibit. The administrator is trying to overwrite an existing file on the TFTP server that was previously uploaded by another router. However, the attempt to update the file fails. Which action resolves this issue?
 

A.    Make the packages.conf file executable by all on the TFTP server
B.    Make the packages.conf file writable by all on the TFTP server
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QUESTION 297
You have been tasked with implementing new processes via mobile apps.
You plan to create a mobile app that gives users the ability to consistently generate and alter data in a Finance and operations app data entity via a business process flow component with a SiteMap to make the navigation structure available.
Which of the following is the app type you should use?

A. Canvas app
B. Model-driven app
C. Portal
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QUESTION 368
Which configuration method provides the options to prevent physical and virtual endpoint devices that are in the same base EPG or uSeg from being able to communicate with each other with Vmware VDS or Microsoft vSwitch?

A. inter-EPG isolation
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QUESTION 983
A company in the United States (US) has acquired a company in Europe. Both companies use the AWS Cloud. The US company has built a new application with a microservices architecture. The US company is hosting the application across five VPCs in the us-east-2 Region. The application must be able to access resources in one VPC in the eu-west-1 Region. However, the application must not be able to access any other VPCs.
The VPCs in both Regions have no overlapping CIDR ranges. All Accounts are already consolidated in one organization in AWS Organizations.
Which solution will meet these requirements MOST cost-effectively?

A. Create one transit gateway in eu-west-1. Attach the VPCs in us-east-2 and the VPC in eu-west-1 to the transit gateway. Create the necessary route entries in each VPC so that the traffic is routed through the transit gateway.
B. Create one transit gateway in each Region. Attach the involved subnets to the regional transit gateway. Create the necessary route entries in the associated route tables for each subnet so that the traffic is routed through the regional transit gateway. Peer the two transit gateways.
C. Create a full mesh VPC peering connection configuration between all the VPCs. Create the necessary route entries in each VPC so that the traffic is routed through the VPC peering connection.
D. Create one VPC peering connection for each VPC in us-east-2 to the VPC in eu-west-1. Create the necessary route entries in each VPC so that the traffic is routed through the VPC peering connection.

Answer: B
Explanation:
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QUESTION 297
You have been tasked with implementing new processes via mobile apps.
You plan to create a mobile app that gives users the ability to consistently generate and alter data in a Finance and operations app data entity via a business process flow component with a SiteMap to make the navigation structure available.
Which of the following is the app type you should use?

A. Canvas app
B. Model-driven app
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QUESTION 102
Case Study 1 – City Power and Light
Background
City Power and Light is a publicly traded electric utility company. The company has a corporate office, four regional field offices, two subsidiary companies that produce solar energy, and one wind power subsidiary. City Power and Light has 50 percent ownership in the solar energy company. The company fully owns the wind power company but operates it separately from other businesses. City Power and Light currently operates with varying integrated legacy systems and has difficulty assembling company financials. Migrating these systems and workloads to a common platform would improve visibility into the business and inform decision making. The company plans to implement Dynamics 365.
Legacy systems
– The legacy system does not have audit capability of configurable workflow based on business logic
– The legacy paper-based purchasing system does not allow parent-child relationships for vendors. Two signatures are required for purchase requisitions.
– Purchase orders are entered into the system manually based on signed purchase requisitions printed to PDF and then emailed to the vendor.
– The legacy procurement system does not have a parent-child relationship for master data management.
Financials
– All financial consolidate up to City Power and Light Holding, LLC.
– The finance department employees are currently able to create as well as pay invoices.
Customers
Sales orders from the website are uploaded into the system manually once a day. International and domestic customers currently post to the same receivable account. At the end of the month, these have to be separated into domestic and international receivable accounts.
Other information
– There are multiple active acquisitions expected during trie implementation timeline.
– The item master data for solar panel configurations has multiple variables and variants. As a complex.
General
– Flexible implementation approach to support frequently changing business needs and requirements.
– A phased roll-out is needed due to the complexity of the business.
– Any offsite Travel meals submitted on an expense report without corresponding flight and hotel expenses need to be reviewed.
– Ten percent of vendor invoices should be reviewed to ensure they meet company policy.
– Testing of business processes needs to be automated.
– Customer surveys must be sent out after email customer service interactions. Surveys must contain a rating system and a way for customers to add comments.
– Employees require one central tool for internal communication, phone calls, and file sharing.
– Sales representatives need an enterprise quoting tool for solar panel customers.
Technical
– A cloud-based financial and operational system, accessible on mobile devices.
– The ability to keep a legacy meter reading application with the ability to use the data in aggregated operating reports.
– Business processes should be tested with different variables for the same process as part of the testing plan.
Functional
– Establish and document business processes to assist with on-boarding new employees more efficiently.
– Parent-child relationships need to be established for vendors with regional offices. Purchasing locations vary from invoicing locations.
– The ability to create automated wire payments.
Requisitions
– All purchase requisitions over $50 need to be approved by a manager.
– All purchase requisitions over $1,000 require senior manager approval.
– Multiple purchase requisitions to the same vendor should be combined.
Sales
The item master data for solar panel configurations have multiple variables and variants. This leads to complex quoting and sales orders.
Sales representatives must be able to create automated wire payments.
Issues
– A limited number of users are available for testing.
– User1 reports that the date fields are not saving during formula entry with saved variables functionality in the RSAT tool.
– The purchasing department is seeing duplicate vendor records during data conversion.
– Audit notes from the prior year indicate improvement is needed in roles and responsibilities related to financial management and security roles.
– User2 reports that parts ordered on P0123 were never received and the vendor has said they never received the PO.
– User3 provides feedback that important steps during journal entry are being forgotten and new users need hands-on guidance.
– Service technicians report that they do not always have the appropriate tools or parts with them requiring multiple service calls.
You need to recommend a solution to resolve the issues reported with the company’s legacy systems.
Which functionality should you recommend?

A. Vendor groups
B. Financial dimensions
C. Vendor posting profile
D. Invoice-to account

Answer: B
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/fin-ops-core/fin-ops/organization-administration/plan-organizational-hierarchy

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QUESTION 263
What is a functionality of the Waterfall method as compared to the Agile method for software development?

A. Waterfall increases agility to implement faster while Agile promotes reliability.
B. A phase begins after the previous phase has ended in Waterfall while Agile phases run in parallel.
C. Customers get feedback during the process in Waterfall while they can see the result at the end in Agile.
D. Requirements can be updated in Waterfall while in Agile it should be gathered in the beginning.

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QUESTION 540
A user reports trouble using a corporate laptop. The laptop freezes and responds slowly when writing documents and the mouse pointer occasional disappears.
The task list shows the following results

Which of the following is MOST likely the issue?

A. RAT
B. PUP
C. Spyware
D. Keylogger

Answer: A

QUESTION 541
Which of the following attacks MOST likely occurred on the user’s internal network?
Name: Wikipedia.org
Address: 208.80.154.224

A. DNS poisoning
B. URL redirection
C. ARP poisoning
D. /etc/hosts poisoning

Answer: A

QUESTION 542
A company currently uses passwords for logging in to company-owned devices and wants to add a second authentication factor. Per corporate policy, users are not allowed to have smartphones at their desks. Which of the following would meet these requirements?

A. Smart card
B. PIN code
C. Knowledge-based question
D. Secret key

Answer: B

QUESTION 543
A dynamic application vulnerability scan identified code injection could be performed using a web form. Which of the following will be BEST remediation to prevent this vulnerability?

A. Implement input validations
B. Deploy MFA
C. Utilize a WAF
D. Configure HIPS

Answer: C

QUESTION 544
Which of the following would be used to find the MOST common web-application vulnerabilities?

A. OWASP
B. MITRE ATTACK
C. Cyber Kill Chain
D. SDLC

Answer: A

QUESTION 545
The board of doctors at a company contracted with an insurance firm to limit the organization’s liability. Which of the following risk management practices does the BEST describe?

A. Transference
B. Avoidance
C. Mitigation
D. Acknowledgement

Answer: A

QUESTION 546
Which of the following would be MOST effective to contain a rapidly attack that is affecting a large number of organizations?

A. Machine learning
B. DNS sinkhole
C. Blocklist
D. Honeypot

Answer: D

QUESTION 547
An analyst just discovered an ongoing attack on a host that is on the network. The analyst observes the below taking place:
– The computer performance is slow
– Ads are appearing from various pop-up windows
– Operating system files are modified
– The computer is receiving AV alerts for execution of malicious processes
Which of the following steps should the analyst consider FIRST?

A. Check to make sure the DLP solution is in the active state
B. Patch the host to prevent exploitation
C. Put the machine in containment
D. Update the AV solution on the host to stop the attack

Answer: C

QUESTION 548
Security analysts are conducting an investigation of an attack that occurred inside the organization’s network. An attacker was able to connect network traffic between workstation throughout the network. The analysts review the following logs:

The layer 2 address table has hundred of entries similar to the ones above.
Which of the following attacks has MOST likely occurred?

A. SQL injection
B. DNS spoofing
C. MAC flooding
D. ARP poisoning

Answer: C

QUESTION 549
The chief compliance officer from a bank has approved a background check policy for all new hires. Which of the following is the policy MOST likely protecting against?

A. Preventing any current employees’ siblings from working at the bank to prevent nepotism
B. Hiring an employee who has been convicted of theft to adhere to industry compliance
C. Filtering applicants who have added false information to resumes so they appear better qualified
D. Ensuring no new hires have worked at other banks that may be trying to steal customer information

Answer: B

QUESTION 550
Which biometric error would allow an unauthorized user to access a system?

A. False acceptance
B. False entrance
C. False rejection
D. False denial

Answer: A

QUESTION 551
Which of the following would produce the closet experience of responding to an actual incident response scenario?

A. Lessons learned
B. Simulation
C. Walk-through
D. Tabletop

Answer: B

QUESTION 552
An organization is concerned about intellectual property theft by employee who leave the organization. Which of the following will be organization MOST likely implement?

A. CBT
B. NDA
C. MOU
D. AUP

Answer: B

QUESTION 553
An organization maintains several environments in which patches are developed and tested before deployed to an operation status. Which of the following is the environment in which patches will be deployed just prior to being put into an operational status?

A. Development
B. Test
C. Production
D. Staging

Answer: B

QUESTION 554
Which of the following control types would be BEST to use to identify violations and incidents?

A. Detective
B. Compensating
C. Deterrent
D. Corrective
E. Recovery
F. Preventive

Answer: A

QUESTION 555
A security manager runs Nessus scans of the network after every maintenance window. Which of the following is the security manger MOST likely trying to accomplish?

A. Verifying that system patching has effectively removed knows vulnerabilities
B. Identifying assets on the network that may not exist on the network asset inventory
C. Validating the hosts do not have vulnerable ports exposed to the internet
D. Checking the status of the automated malware analysis that is being performed

Answer: A

QUESTION 556
A penetration tester gains access to the network by exploiting a vulnerability on a public-facing web server. Which of the following techniques will the tester most likely perform NEXT?

A. Gather more information about the target through passive reconnaissance
B. Establish rules of engagement before proceeding
C. Create a user account to maintain persistence
D. Move laterally throughout the network to search for sensitive information

Answer: C

QUESTION 557
A news article states that a popular web browser deployed on all corporate PCs is vulnerable a zero-day attack. Which of the following MOST concern the Chief Information Security Officer about the information in the new article?

A. Insider threats have compromised this network
B. Web browsing is not functional for the entire network
C. Antivirus signatures are required to be updated immediately
D. No patches are available for the web browser

Answer: D

QUESTION 558
DDoS attacks are causing an overload on the cluster of cloud servers. A security architect is researching alternatives to make the cloud environment respond to load fluctuation in a cost- effective way. Which of the following options BEST fulfils the architect’s requirements?

A. An orchestration solution that can adjust scalability of cloud assets
B. Use of multipath by adding more connections to cloud storage
C. Cloud assets replicated on geographically distributed regions
D. An on-site backup that is deployed and only used when the load increases

Answer: A

QUESTION 559
Administrators have allowed employee to access their company email from personal computers. However, the administrators are concerned that these computes are another attach surface and can result in user accounts being breached by foreign actors.
Which of the following actions would provide the MOST secure solution?

A. Enable an option in the administration center so accounts can be locked if they are accessed from different geographical areas
B. Implement a 16-character minimum length and 30-day expiration password policy
C. Set up a global mail rule to disallow the forwarding of any company email to email addresses outside the organization
D. Enforce a policy that allows employees to be able to access their email only while they are connected to the internet via VPN

Answer: D

QUESTION 560
A security engineer needs to build a solution to satisfy regulatory requirements that state certain critical servers must be accessed using MFA. However, the critical servers are older and are unable to support the addition of MFA.
Which of the following will the engineer MOST likely use to achieve this objective?

A. A forward proxy
B. A stateful firewall
C. A jump server
D. A port tap

Answer: B

QUESTION 561
A security analyst wants to fingerprint a web server. Which of the following tools will the security analyst MOST likely use to accomplish this task?

A. nmap -p1-65535 192.168.0.10
B. dig 192.168.0.10
C. curl –head http://192.168.0.10
D. ping 192.168.0.10

Answer: C
Explanation:
curl – Identify remote web server
Type the command as follows:
$ curl -I http://www.remote-server.com/
$ curl -I http://vivekgite.com/
Output:
HTTP/1.1 200 OK
Content-type: text/html
Content-Length: 0
Date: Mon, 28 Jan 2008 08:53:54 GMT
Server: lighttpd

QUESTION 562
Which of the following provides a catalog of security and privacy controls related to the United States federal information systems?

A. GDPR
B. PCI DSS
C. ISO 27000
D. NIST 800-53

Answer: D
Explanation:
NIST Special Publication 800-53 provides a catalog of security and privacy controls for all U.S. federal information systems except those related to national security. It is published by the National Institute of Standards and Technology, which is a non-regulatory agency of the United States Department of Commerce.

QUESTION 563
An information security policy stales that separation of duties is required for all highly sensitive database changes that involve customers’ financial data. Which of the following will this be BEST to prevent?

A. Least privilege
B. An insider threat
C. A data breach
D. A change control violation

Answer: B
Explanation:
Separation of duties – is a means of establishing checks and balances against the possibility that critical system or procedures can be compromised by insider threats. Duties and responsibilities should be divided among individuals to prevent ethical conflicts or abuse of powers.

QUESTION 564
A security analyst receives an alert from the company’s SIEM that anomalous activity is coming from a local source IP address of 192.168.34.26. The Chief Information Security Officer asks the analyst to block the originating source. Several days later another employee opens an internal ticket stating that vulnerability scans are no longer being performed properly. The IP address the employee provides is 192.168.34.26. Which of the following describes this type of alert?

A. True positive
B. True negative
C. False positive
D. False negative

Answer: C
Explanation:
Traditional SIEM Log Analysis
Traditionally, the SIEM used two techniques to generate alerts from log data: correlation rules, specifying a sequence of events that indicates an anomaly, which could represent a security threat, vulnerability or active security incident; and vulnerabilities and risk assessment, which involves scanning networks for known attack patterns and vulnerabilities. The drawback of these older techniques is that they generate a lot of false positives, and are not successful at detecting new and unexpected event types

QUESTION 565
Hackers recently attacked a company’s network and obtained several unfavorable pictures from the Chief Executive Officer’s workstation. The hackers are threatening to send the images to the press if a ransom is not paid. Which of the following is impacted the MOST?

A. Identify theft
B. Data loss
C. Data exfiltration
D. Reputation

Answer: C
Explanation:
Data exfiltration occurs when malware and/or a malicious actor carries out an unauthorized data transfer from a computer. It is also commonly called data extrusion or data exportation. Data exfiltration is also considered a form of data theft.

QUESTION 566
A software company is analyzing a process that detects software vulnerabilities at the earliest stage possible. The goal is to scan the source looking for unsecure practices and weaknesses before the application is deployed in a runtime environment. Which of the following would BEST assist the company with this objective?

A. Use fuzzing testing
B. Use a web vulnerability scanner
C. Use static code analysis
D. Use a penetration-testing OS

Answer: C
Explanation:
Fuzzing
Fuzzing or fuzz testing is an automated software testing technique that involves providing invalid, unexpected, or random data as inputs to a computer program. The program is then monitored for exceptions such as crashes, failing built-in code assertions, or potential memory leaks.
Static program analysis
Static program analysis is the analysis of computer software performed without executing any programs, in contrast with dynamic analysis, which is performed on programs during their execution.
What is static code analysis?
Static code analysis is a method of debugging by examining source code before a program is run. It’s done by analyzing a set of code against a set (or multiple sets) of coding rules. … This type of analysis addresses weaknesses in source code that might lead to vulnerabilities.
Penetration test
A penetration test, colloquially known as a pen test or ethical hacking, is an authorized simulated cyberattack on a computer system, performed to evaluate the security of the system; this is not to be confused with a vulnerability assessment.

QUESTION 567
A company is providing security awareness training regarding the importance of not forwarding social media messages from unverified sources. Which of the following risks would this training help to prevent?

A. Hoaxes
B. SPIMs
C. Identity fraud
D. Credential harvesting

Answer: D
Explanation:
Hoax
A hoax is a falsehood deliberately fabricated to masquerade as the truth. It is distinguishable from errors in observation or judgment, rumors, urban legends, pseudo sciences, and April Fools’ Day events that are passed along in good faith by believers or as jokes.
Identity theft
Identity theft occurs when someone uses another person’s personal identifying information, like their name, identifying number, or credit card number, without their permission, to commit fraud or other crimes. The term identity theft was coined in 1964. Identity fraud (also known as identity theft or crime) involves someone using another individual’s personal information without consent, often to obtain a benefit.
Credential Harvesting
Credential Harvesting (or Account Harvesting) is the use of MITM attacks, DNS poisoning, phishing, and other vectors to amass large numbers of credentials (username / password combinations) for reuse.

QUESTION 568
A penetration tester was able to compromise an internal server and is now trying to pivot the current session in a network lateral movement. Which of the following tools, if available on the server, will provide the MOST useful information for the next assessment step?

A. Autopsy
B. Cuckoo
C. Memdump
D. Nmap

Answer: D
Explanation:
Memdump
A display or printout of all or selected contents of RAM. After a program abends (crashes), a memory dump is taken in order to analyze the status of the program. The programmer looks into the memory buffers to see which data items were being worked on at the time of failure.
Nmap
Nmap is a network scanner created by Gordon Lyon. Nmap is used to discover hosts and services on a computer network by sending packets and analyzing the responses. Nmap provides a number of features for probing computer networks, including host discovery and service and operating system detection.

QUESTION 569
A security analyst is responding to an alert from the SIEM. The alert states that malware was discovered on a host and was not automatically deleted. Which of the following would be BEST for the analyst to perform?

A. Add a deny-all rule to that host in the network ACL
B. Implement a network-wide scan for other instances of the malware.
C. Quarantine the host from other parts of the network
D. Revoke the client’s network access certificates

Answer: B
Explanation:
What is Malware?
Malware, short for “malicious software,” refers to any intrusive software developed by cybercriminals (often called “hackers”) to steal data and damage or destroy computers and computer systems. Examples of common malware include viruses, worms, Trojan viruses, spyware, adware, and ransomware. Recent malware attacks have exfiltrated data in mass amounts.
How do I protect my network against malware?
Typically, businesses focus on preventative tools to stop breaches. By securing the perimeter, businesses assume they are safe. Some advanced malware, however, will eventually make their way into your network. As a result, it is crucial to deploy technologies that continually monitor and detect malware that has evaded perimeter defenses. Sufficient advanced malware protection requires multiple layers of safeguards along with high-level network visibility and intelligence.
How do I detect and respond to malware?
Malware will inevitably penetrate your network. You must have defenses that provide significant visibility and breach detection. In order to remove malware, you must be able to identify malicious actors quickly. This requires constant network scanning. Once the threat is identified, you must remove the malware from your network. Today’s antivirus products are not enough to protect against advanced cyber threats. Learn how to update your antivirus strategy.


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